JEE Main 2020 Physics Question Paper with Answer and Solution

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PhysicsQ51150 of 399 questions

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51
PhysicsMediumMCQJEE Main · 2020
Two gases-argon (atomic radius $0.07 \; nm$,atomic weight $40$) and xenon (atomic radius $0.1 \; nm$,atomic weight $140$) have the same number density and are at the same temperature. The ratio of their respective mean free times is closest to:
A
$1.09$
B
$4.67$
C
$1.83$
D
$2.3$

Solution

(A) The mean free path $\lambda$ is given by $\lambda = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2} \pi n_{v} d^{2}}$,where $n_{v}$ is the number density and $d$ is the diameter of the atom.
The mean free time $\tau$ is defined as $\tau = \frac{\lambda}{v_{rms}}$,where $v_{rms} = \sqrt{\frac{3RT}{M}}$.
Substituting $\lambda$ and $v_{rms}$ into the expression for $\tau$:
$\tau = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2} \pi n_{v} d^{2}} \sqrt{\frac{M}{3RT}}$.
Since $n_{v}$,$R$,and $T$ are the same for both gases,the ratio of the mean free times $\tau_{Ar} / \tau_{Xe}$ is:
$\frac{\tau_{Ar}}{\tau_{Xe}} = \sqrt{\frac{M_{Ar}}{M_{Xe}}} \times \left( \frac{d_{Xe}}{d_{Ar}} \right)^{2}$.
Given $M_{Ar} = 40$,$M_{Xe} = 140$,$d_{Ar} = 2 \times 0.07 \; nm$,and $d_{Xe} = 2 \times 0.1 \; nm$:
$\frac{\tau_{Ar}}{\tau_{Xe}} = \sqrt{\frac{40}{140}} \times \left( \frac{0.1}{0.07} \right)^{2} = \sqrt{\frac{2}{7}} \times \left( \frac{10}{7} \right)^{2} \approx 0.5345 \times 2.0408 \approx 1.09$.
52
PhysicsMediumMCQJEE Main · 2020
$A$ particle starts from the origin at $t=0$ with an initial velocity of $3.0 \hat{i} \; m/s$ and moves in the $x-y$ plane with a constant acceleration $(6.0 \hat{i} + 4.0 \hat{j}) \; m/s^2$. The $x$-coordinate of the particle at the instant when its $y$-coordinate is $32 \; m$ is $D$ meters. The value of $D$ is
A
$50$
B
$32$
C
$60$
D
$40$

Solution

(C) Given: Initial velocity $\vec{u} = 3.0 \hat{i} \; m/s$,acceleration $\vec{a} = (6.0 \hat{i} + 4.0 \hat{j}) \; m/s^2$,and initial position $(0, 0)$ at $t=0$.
For motion in the $y$-direction:
$y = u_y t + \frac{1}{2} a_y t^2$
$32 = 0 \times t + \frac{1}{2} (4.0) t^2$
$32 = 2 t^2$
$t^2 = 16 \implies t = 4 \; s$.
For motion in the $x$-direction:
$x = u_x t + \frac{1}{2} a_x t^2$
$x = (3.0)(4) + \frac{1}{2} (6.0)(4)^2$
$x = 12 + 3.0 \times 16$
$x = 12 + 48 = 60 \; m$.
Thus,$D = 60$.
53
PhysicsDifficultMCQJEE Main · 2020
$A$ particle of mass $m$ is projected with a speed $u$ from the ground at an angle $\theta = \frac{\pi}{3}$ w.r.t. horizontal ($x$-axis). When it has reached its maximum height,it collides completely inelastically with another particle of the same mass and velocity $u \hat{i}$. The horizontal distance covered by the combined mass before reaching the ground is
A
$\frac{3 \sqrt{2}}{4} \frac{u^{2}}{g}$
B
$2 \sqrt{2} \frac{u^{2}}{g}$
C
$\frac{3 \sqrt{3}}{8} \frac{u^{2}}{g}$
D
$\frac{5}{8} \frac{u^{2}}{g}$

Solution

(C) $1$. At maximum height,the velocity of the first particle is $v_x = u \cos 60^{\circ} = \frac{u}{2}$ and $v_y = 0$.
$2$. The second particle has velocity $u \hat{i}$.
$3$. By conservation of linear momentum in the horizontal direction:
$m \left( \frac{u}{2} \right) + m(u) = (m + m) v^{\prime}$
$\frac{3mu}{2} = 2mv^{\prime} \implies v^{\prime} = \frac{3u}{4}$.
$4$. The maximum height $H$ is given by $H = \frac{u^2 \sin^2 60^{\circ}}{2g} = \frac{u^2 (3/4)}{2g} = \frac{3u^2}{8g}$.
$5$. The time taken to fall from height $H$ to the ground is $t = \sqrt{\frac{2H}{g}} = \sqrt{\frac{2}{g} \cdot \frac{3u^2}{8g}} = \sqrt{\frac{3u^2}{4g^2}} = \frac{u \sqrt{3}}{2g}$.
$6$. The horizontal distance covered by the combined mass after collision is $d = v^{\prime} \cdot t = \left( \frac{3u}{4} \right) \left( \frac{u \sqrt{3}}{2g} \right) = \frac{3 \sqrt{3} u^2}{8g}$.
Solution diagram
54
PhysicsDifficultMCQJEE Main · 2020
$A$ uniformly thick wheel with moment of inertia $I$ and radius $R$ is free to rotate about its centre of mass (see fig). $A$ massless string is wrapped over its rim and two blocks of masses $m_{1}$ and $m_{2}$ $(m_{1} > m_{2})$ are attached to the ends of the string. The system is released from rest. The angular speed of the wheel when $m_{1}$ descends by a distance $h$ is
Question diagram
A
$\left[\frac{m_{1}+m_{2}}{\left(m_{1}+m_{2}\right) R^{2}+I}\right]^{\frac{1}{2}} gh$
B
$\left[\frac{2\left(m_{1}-m_{2}\right) gh}{\left(m_{1}+m_{2}\right) R^{2}+I}\right]^{\frac{1}{2}}$
C
$\left[\frac{2\left(m_{1}+m_{2}\right) gh}{\left(m_{1}+m_{2}\right) R^{2}+I}\right]^{\frac{1}{2}}$
D
$\left[\frac{\left(m_{1}-m_{2}\right)}{\left(m_{1}+m_{2}\right) R^{2}+I}\right]^{\frac{1}{2}} gh$

Solution

(B) By using the work-energy theorem,the work done by gravity equals the change in kinetic energy of the system.
$W_{g} = \Delta KE$
$(m_{1} - m_{2}) gh = \frac{1}{2} m_{1} v^{2} + \frac{1}{2} m_{2} v^{2} + \frac{1}{2} I \omega^{2}$
Since the string does not slip,$v = \omega R$. Substituting this into the equation:
$(m_{1} - m_{2}) gh = \frac{1}{2} (m_{1} + m_{2}) (\omega R)^{2} + \frac{1}{2} I \omega^{2}$
$(m_{1} - m_{2}) gh = \frac{\omega^{2}}{2} [(m_{1} + m_{2}) R^{2} + I]$
Solving for $\omega$:
$\omega = \sqrt{\frac{2(m_{1} - m_{2}) gh}{(m_{1} + m_{2}) R^{2} + I}}$
Solution diagram
55
PhysicsMediumMCQJEE Main · 2020
Planet $A$ has mass $M$ and radius $R$. Planet $B$ has half the mass and half the radius of Planet $A$. If the escape velocities from the Planets $A$ and $B$ are $v_{A}$ and $v_{B}$ respectively,then $\frac{v_{A}}{v_{B}}=\frac{n}{4}$. The value of $n$ is
A
$4$
B
$1$
C
$2$
D
$3$

Solution

(A) The formula for escape velocity is $v_{e} = \sqrt{\frac{2GM}{R}}$.
For Planet $A$,the escape velocity is $v_{A} = \sqrt{\frac{2GM}{R}}$.
For Planet $B$,the mass is $M' = \frac{M}{2}$ and the radius is $R' = \frac{R}{2}$.
Thus,the escape velocity for Planet $B$ is $v_{B} = \sqrt{\frac{2G(M/2)}{R/2}} = \sqrt{\frac{2GM}{R}}$.
Comparing the two,we get $\frac{v_{A}}{v_{B}} = \frac{\sqrt{2GM/R}}{\sqrt{2GM/R}} = 1$.
Given that $\frac{v_{A}}{v_{B}} = \frac{n}{4}$,we have $1 = \frac{n}{4}$,which implies $n = 4$.
56
PhysicsMediumMCQJEE Main · 2020
Two steel wires having same length are suspended from a ceiling under the same load. If the ratio of their energy stored per unit volume is $1: 4$,the ratio of their diameters is
A
$1: \sqrt{2}$
B
$1: 2$
C
$2: 1$
D
$\sqrt{2}: 1$

Solution

(D) The energy stored per unit volume $(u)$ is given by the formula: $u = \frac{1}{2} \times \text{Stress} \times \text{Strain} = \frac{1}{2} \frac{(\text{Stress})^2}{Y}$.
Since $\text{Stress} = \frac{F}{A} = \frac{F}{\pi (d/2)^2} = \frac{4F}{\pi d^2}$,we have $u = \frac{1}{2Y} \left( \frac{4F}{\pi d^2} \right)^2$.
Given that the load $(F)$,length,and Young's modulus $(Y)$ are the same for both wires,$u \propto \frac{1}{d^4}$.
Therefore,$\frac{u_1}{u_2} = \left( \frac{d_2}{d_1} \right)^4$.
Given $\frac{u_1}{u_2} = \frac{1}{4}$,we have $\frac{1}{4} = \left( \frac{d_2}{d_1} \right)^4$.
Taking the fourth root on both sides,$\frac{d_2}{d_1} = \left( \frac{1}{4} \right)^{1/4} = \left( \frac{1}{2^2} \right)^{1/4} = \frac{1}{2^{1/2}} = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}$.
Thus,$\frac{d_1}{d_2} = \sqrt{2} : 1$.
57
PhysicsDifficultMCQJEE Main · 2020
For the four sets of three measured physical quantities as given below,which of the following options is correct?
$(i)$ $A_{1}=24.36, B_{1}=0.0724, C_{1}=256.2$
$(ii)$ $A_{2}=24.44, B_{2}=16.082, C_{2}=240.2$
$(iii)$ $A_{3}=25.2, B_{3}=19.2812, C_{3}=236.183$
$(iv)$ $A_{4}=25, B_{4}=236.191, C_{4}=19.5$
A
$A_{4}+B_{4}+C_{4} < A_{1}+B_{1}+C_{1} < A_{3}+B_{3}+C_{3} < A_{2}+B_{2}+C_{2}$
B
$A_{1}+B_{1}+C_{1} < A_{3}+B_{3}+C_{3} < A_{2}+B_{2}+C_{2} < A_{4}+B_{4}+C_{4}$
C
$A_{1}+B_{1}+C_{1} = A_{2}+B_{2}+C_{2} = A_{3}+B_{3}+C_{3} = A_{4}+B_{4}+C_{4}$
D
$A_{4}+B_{4}+C_{4} > A_{3}+B_{3}+C_{3} = A_{2}+B_{2}+C_{2} > A_{1}+B_{1}+C_{1}$

Solution

(D) To determine the correct order,we must perform the addition and round the result to the appropriate number of significant figures based on the least precise measurement (the one with the fewest decimal places).
$(i)$ $A_{1}+B_{1}+C_{1} = 24.36 + 0.0724 + 256.2 = 280.6324$. The least precise value is $256.2$ (one decimal place),so the sum is $280.6$.
$(ii)$ $A_{2}+B_{2}+C_{2} = 24.44 + 16.082 + 240.2 = 280.722$. The least precise value is $240.2$ (one decimal place),so the sum is $280.7$.
$(iii)$ $A_{3}+B_{3}+C_{3} = 25.2 + 19.2812 + 236.183 = 280.6642$. The least precise value is $25.2$ (one decimal place),so the sum is $280.7$.
$(iv)$ $A_{4}+B_{4}+C_{4} = 25 + 236.191 + 19.5 = 280.691$. The least precise value is $25$ (zero decimal places),so the sum is $281$.
Comparing the results: $281 > 280.7 = 280.7 > 280.6$. Thus,$A_{4}+B_{4}+C_{4} > A_{3}+B_{3}+C_{3} = A_{2}+B_{2}+C_{2} > A_{1}+B_{1}+C_{1}$.
58
PhysicsDifficultMCQJEE Main · 2020
Starting at temperature $300 \; K,$ one mole of an ideal diatomic gas $(\gamma=1.4)$ is first compressed adiabatically from volume $V_{1}$ to $V_{2}=\frac{V_{1}}{16}.$ It is then allowed to expand isobarically to volume $2V_{2}.$ If all the processes are quasi-static,then the final temperature of the gas (in $K$) is (to the nearest integer):
A
$1818$
B
$2020$
C
$1576$
D
$1734$

Solution

(A) Step $1$: Adiabatic compression from $V_{1}$ to $V_{2} = V_{1}/16$.
For an adiabatic process,$T_{1}V_{1}^{\gamma-1} = T_{2}V_{2}^{\gamma-1}$.
Given $T_{1} = 300 \; K$,$\gamma = 1.4 = 7/5$,so $\gamma-1 = 0.4 = 2/5$.
$300 \times V_{1}^{2/5} = T_{2} \times (V_{1}/16)^{2/5}$.
$T_{2} = 300 \times (16)^{2/5} = 300 \times (2^{4})^{2/5} = 300 \times 2^{8/5}$.
$T_{2} = 300 \times 3.0314 = 909.42 \; K$.
Step $2$: Isobaric expansion from $V_{2}$ to $2V_{2}$.
For an isobaric process,$V/T = \text{constant}$,so $V_{2}/T_{2} = (2V_{2})/T_{f}$.
$T_{f} = 2 \times T_{2} = 2 \times 909.42 = 1818.84 \; K$.
Rounding to the nearest integer,the final temperature is $1819 \; K$. Given the options,$1818$ is the closest match.
59
PhysicsMediumMCQJEE Main · 2020
Consider a force $\overrightarrow{F}=-x \hat{i}+y \hat{j}$. The work done by this force in moving a particle from point $A(1,0)$ to $B(0,1)$ along the line segment is (all quantities are in $SI$ units).
Question diagram
A
$1.5$
B
$1$
C
$2$
D
$0.5$

Solution

(B) The work done by a variable force is given by the line integral $W = \int_{A}^{B} \overrightarrow{F} \cdot d\overrightarrow{r}$.
The equation of the line segment connecting $A(1, 0)$ and $B(0, 1)$ is $y = -x + 1$,or $x + y = 1$.
Thus,$d\overrightarrow{r} = dx \hat{i} + dy \hat{j}$.
The work done is $W = \int_{A}^{B} (-x \hat{i} + y \hat{j}) \cdot (dx \hat{i} + dy \hat{j}) = \int_{A}^{B} (-x dx + y dy)$.
Substituting the limits from $x=1$ to $x=0$ and $y=0$ to $y=1$:
$W = \int_{1}^{0} -x dx + \int_{0}^{1} y dy$
$W = \left[ -\frac{x^2}{2} \right]_{1}^{0} + \left[ \frac{y^2}{2} \right]_{0}^{1}$
$W = -\left( \frac{0^2}{2} - \frac{1^2}{2} \right) + \left( \frac{1^2}{2} - \frac{0^2}{2} \right)$
$W = -\left( 0 - 0.5 \right) + \left( 0.5 - 0 \right) = 0.5 + 0.5 = 1 \text{ J}$.
60
PhysicsMediumMCQJEE Main · 2020
$A$ quantity $f$ is given by $f = \sqrt{\frac{hc^5}{G}}$,where $c$ is the speed of light,$G$ is the universal gravitational constant,and $h$ is Planck's constant. The dimension of $f$ is that of:
A
Momentum
B
Area
C
Energy
D
Volume

Solution

(C) The dimensions of the constants are:
$[h] = M^1 L^2 T^{-1}$
$[c] = L^1 T^{-1}$
$[G] = M^{-1} L^3 T^{-2}$
Substituting these into the expression for $f$:
$[f] = \sqrt{\frac{(M^1 L^2 T^{-1}) \times (L^1 T^{-1})^5}{M^{-1} L^3 T^{-2}}}$
$[f] = \sqrt{\frac{M^1 L^2 T^{-1} \times L^5 T^{-5}}{M^{-1} L^3 T^{-2}}}$
$[f] = \sqrt{\frac{M^1 L^7 T^{-6}}{M^{-1} L^3 T^{-2}}}$
$[f] = \sqrt{M^{1-(-1)} L^{7-3} T^{-6-(-2)}}$
$[f] = \sqrt{M^2 L^4 T^{-4}}$
$[f] = M^1 L^2 T^{-2}$
The dimension $M^1 L^2 T^{-2}$ corresponds to the dimension of Energy.
61
PhysicsMediumMCQJEE Main · 2020
$A$ body $A$ of mass $m$ is moving in a circular orbit of radius $R$ about a planet. Another body $B$ of mass $\frac{m}{2}$ collides with $A$ with a velocity which is half $\left(\frac{\overrightarrow{v}}{2}\right)$ the instantaneous velocity $\overrightarrow{v}$ of $A$. The collision is completely inelastic. Then,the combined body
A
starts moving in an elliptical orbit around the planet
B
continues to move in a circular orbit
C
falls vertically downwards towards the planet
D
escapes from the planet's gravitational field

Solution

(A) Initially,the body of mass $m$ is moving in a circular orbit of radius $R$. So,it must be moving with orbital speed $v_{0} = \sqrt{\frac{GM}{R}}$.
After the collision,let the combined mass move with speed $v_{1}$.
Using the conservation of linear momentum:
$m v_{0} + \frac{m}{2} \left(\frac{v_{0}}{2}\right) = \left(m + \frac{m}{2}\right) v_{1}$
$m v_{0} + \frac{m v_{0}}{4} = \frac{3m}{2} v_{1}$
$\frac{5m v_{0}}{4} = \frac{3m}{2} v_{1}$
$v_{1} = \frac{5}{4} \times \frac{2}{3} v_{0} = \frac{5}{6} v_{0}$.
Since the speed after the collision $(v_{1} = \frac{5}{6} v_{0})$ is not equal to the orbital speed $(v_{0})$,the motion cannot be circular.
Since the velocity remains tangential,it cannot fall vertically towards the planet.
Also,the speed after the collision is less than the escape speed $(v_{e} = \sqrt{2} v_{0})$,so the body cannot escape the gravitational field.
Therefore,the combined body will move in an elliptical orbit around the planet.
62
PhysicsMediumMCQJEE Main · 2020
Consider two ideal diatomic gases $A$ and $B$ at some temperature $T$. Molecules of the gas $A$ are rigid,and have a mass $m$. Molecules of the gas $B$ have an additional vibrational mode,and have a mass $\frac{m}{4}$. The ratio of the specific heats $(C_{v}^{A}$ and $C_{v}^{B})$ of gas $A$ and $B$,respectively,is
A
$7:9$
B
$5:7$
C
$3:5$
D
$5:9$

Solution

(B) For a rigid diatomic molecule,the degrees of freedom $(f_A)$ are $5$ ($3$ translational + $2$ rotational).
For a diatomic molecule with an additional vibrational mode,the degrees of freedom $(f_B)$ are $7$ ($3$ translational + $2$ rotational + $2$ vibrational).
The molar specific heat at constant volume is given by $C_v = \frac{f}{2}R$.
Therefore,$C_v^A = \frac{5}{2}R$ and $C_v^B = \frac{7}{2}R$.
The ratio $\frac{C_v^A}{C_v^B} = \frac{\frac{5}{2}R}{\frac{7}{2}R} = \frac{5}{7}$.
63
PhysicsMediumMCQJEE Main · 2020
If the screw on a screw gauge is given six rotations,it moves by $3\; mm$ on the main scale. If there are $50$ divisions on the circular scale,the least count of the screw gauge is:
A
$0.001\; mm$
B
$0.001\; cm$
C
$0.02\; mm$
D
$0.01\; cm$

Solution

(B) The pitch of the screw gauge is the distance moved by the screw in one complete rotation.
Given that $6$ rotations correspond to a movement of $3\; mm$ on the main scale.
Therefore,the pitch $= \frac{3\; mm}{6} = 0.5\; mm$.
The least count $(LC)$ of a screw gauge is defined as the ratio of the pitch to the total number of divisions on the circular scale.
$LC = \frac{\text{Pitch}}{\text{Number of circular scale divisions}}$.
Given the number of divisions $= 50$.
$LC = \frac{0.5\; mm}{50} = 0.01\; mm$.
Converting this to centimeters,$0.01\; mm = 0.001\; cm$.
64
PhysicsDifficultMCQJEE Main · 2020
Two particles of equal mass $m$ have respective initial velocities $u\hat{i}$ and $u\left(\frac{\hat{i}+ \hat{j}}{2}\right)$. They collide completely inelastically. The energy lost in the process is
A
$\frac{3}{4} mu^{2}$
B
$\frac{1}{8} mu^{2}$
C
$\sqrt{\frac{2}{3}} mu^{2}$
D
$\frac{1}{3} mu^{2}$

Solution

(B) Initial momentum of the system: $\vec{P}_i = m(u\hat{i}) + m\left(\frac{u}{2}\hat{i} + \frac{u}{2}\hat{j}\right) = \frac{3}{2}mu\hat{i} + \frac{1}{2}mu\hat{j}$.
Since the collision is completely inelastic,the particles stick together and move with a common velocity $\vec{v}_f$. By conservation of linear momentum: $\vec{P}_i = (m+m)\vec{v}_f = 2m\vec{v}_f$.
$\vec{v}_f = \frac{1}{2m} \left(\frac{3}{2}mu\hat{i} + \frac{1}{2}mu\hat{j}\right) = \frac{3}{4}u\hat{i} + \frac{1}{4}u\hat{j}$.
Initial kinetic energy: $K_i = \frac{1}{2}mu^2 + \frac{1}{2}m\left|\frac{u}{2}\hat{i} + \frac{u}{2}\hat{j}\right|^2 = \frac{1}{2}mu^2 + \frac{1}{2}m\left(\frac{u^2}{4} + \frac{u^2}{4}\right) = \frac{1}{2}mu^2 + \frac{1}{4}mu^2 = \frac{3}{4}mu^2$.
Final kinetic energy: $K_f = \frac{1}{2}(2m)|\vec{v}_f|^2 = m\left(\left(\frac{3}{4}u\right)^2 + \left(\frac{1}{4}u\right)^2\right) = m\left(\frac{9}{16}u^2 + \frac{1}{16}u^2\right) = \frac{10}{16}mu^2 = \frac{5}{8}mu^2$.
Energy lost: $\Delta K = K_i - K_f = \frac{3}{4}mu^2 - \frac{5}{8}mu^2 = \frac{6-5}{8}mu^2 = \frac{1}{8}mu^2$.
65
PhysicsMediumMCQJEE Main · 2020
Which of the following is an equivalent cyclic process corresponding to the thermodynamic cycle given in the figure? Where, $1 \rightarrow 2$ is adiabatic.
Question diagram
A
Option A
B
Option B
C
Option C
D
Option D

Solution

(D) In the given $P-V$ diagram:
$1$. Process $1 \rightarrow 2$ is an adiabatic expansion (pressure decreases, volume increases).
$2$. Process $2 \rightarrow 3$ is an isobaric compression (pressure is constant, volume decreases).
$3$. Process $3 \rightarrow 1$ is an isochoric heating (volume is constant, pressure increases).
Now, let's analyze the $V-T$ diagrams:
- For process $1 \rightarrow 2$ (adiabatic): $TV^{\gamma-1} = \text{constant}$. Since volume increases, temperature must decrease.
- For process $2 \rightarrow 3$ (isobaric): $V \propto T$. Since volume decreases, temperature must decrease.
- For process $3 \rightarrow 1$ (isochoric): $P \propto T$. Since pressure increases, temperature must increase.
Comparing these with the given options, the $V-T$ diagram that shows these trends is represented in option $D$.
66
PhysicsMediumMCQJEE Main · 2020
Three harmonic waves having equal frequency $v$ and same intensity $I_{0}$,have phase angles $0, \frac{\pi}{4}$ and $-\frac{\pi}{4}$ respectively. When they are superimposed,the intensity of the resultant wave is close to
A
$5.8 I_{0}$
B
$0.2 I_{0}$
C
$I_{0}$
D
$3 I_{0}$

Solution

(A) Let the amplitude of each wave be $A$. Since intensity $I \propto A^2$,we have $I_0 = kA^2$,where $k$ is a constant.
The resultant wave equation is given by the sum of the three waves:
$y = A \sin(\omega t) + A \sin(\omega t - \frac{\pi}{4}) + A \sin(\omega t + \frac{\pi}{4})$
Using the trigonometric identity $\sin(x - y) + \sin(x + y) = 2 \sin x \cos y$:
$y = A \sin(\omega t) + A [2 \sin(\omega t) \cos(\frac{\pi}{4})]$
Since $\cos(\frac{\pi}{4}) = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}$:
$y = A \sin(\omega t) + A [2 \sin(\omega t) \cdot \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}]$
$y = A \sin(\omega t) + \sqrt{2} A \sin(\omega t)$
$y = (1 + \sqrt{2}) A \sin(\omega t)$
The resultant amplitude $A_R = (1 + \sqrt{2}) A$.
The resultant intensity $I = k A_R^2 = k [(1 + \sqrt{2}) A]^2 = k A^2 (1 + \sqrt{2})^2$.
Since $I_0 = k A^2$:
$I = I_0 (1 + 2 + 2\sqrt{2}) = I_0 (3 + 2 \times 1.414) = I_0 (3 + 2.828) = 5.828 I_0$.
Thus,the resultant intensity is approximately $5.8 I_0$.
67
PhysicsDifficultMCQJEE Main · 2020
Three solid spheres each of mass $m$ and diameter $d$ are stuck together such that the lines connecting the centres form an equilateral triangle of side length $d$. The ratio $I_{0} / I_{A}$ of the moment of inertia $I_{0}$ of the system about an axis passing through the centroid and perpendicular to the plane of the triangle,to the moment of inertia $I_{A}$ about an axis passing through the center of any one of the spheres and perpendicular to the plane of the triangle,is:
Question diagram
A
$\frac{13}{23}$
B
$\frac{15}{13}$
C
$\frac{23}{13}$
D
$\frac{13}{15}$

Solution

(A) The radius of each sphere is $r = d/2$. The distance from the centroid of the equilateral triangle to the center of each sphere is $R = \frac{d}{\sqrt{3}}$.
Using the parallel axis theorem for each sphere about the axis passing through the centroid $(I_0)$:
$I_0 = 3 \times [I_{cm} + mR^2] = 3 \times [\frac{2}{5}m(d/2)^2 + m(d/\sqrt{3})^2]$
$I_0 = 3 \times [\frac{1}{10}md^2 + \frac{1}{3}md^2] = 3 \times [\frac{3+10}{30}]md^2 = 3 \times \frac{13}{30}md^2 = \frac{13}{10}md^2$.
Now,for the axis passing through the center of one sphere $(A)$ and perpendicular to the plane,we use the parallel axis theorem between the centroid axis and the axis at $A$:
$I_A = I_0 + 3mR^2 = \frac{13}{10}md^2 + 3m(d/\sqrt{3})^2 = \frac{13}{10}md^2 + md^2 = \frac{23}{10}md^2$.
The ratio is $\frac{I_0}{I_A} = \frac{13/10}{23/10} = \frac{13}{23}$.
68
PhysicsDifficultMCQJEE Main · 2020
Water flows in a horizontal tube (see figure). The pressure of water changes by $700 \; Nm^{-2}$ between $A$ and $B$ where the area of cross-section are $40 \; cm^{2}$ and $20 \; cm^{2},$ respectively. Find the rate of flow of water through the tube in $cm^{3} / s$. (Density of water $= 1000 \; kgm^{-3}$)
Question diagram
A
$1810$
B
$3020$
C
$2720$
D
$2420$

Solution

(C) The rate of flow of water is constant,so $A_{A} V_{A} = A_{B} V_{B}$.
Given $A_{A} = 40 \; cm^{2}$ and $A_{B} = 20 \; cm^{2}$,we have $40 V_{A} = 20 V_{B}$,which implies $V_{B} = 2 V_{A}$.
Using Bernoulli's theorem for a horizontal tube: $P_{A} + \frac{1}{2} \rho V_{A}^{2} = P_{B} + \frac{1}{2} \rho V_{B}^{2}$.
Rearranging gives $P_{A} - P_{B} = \frac{1}{2} \rho (V_{B}^{2} - V_{A}^{2})$.
Substituting the given values ($P_{A} - P_{B} = 700 \; Pa$,$\rho = 1000 \; kg/m^{3}$):
$700 = \frac{1}{2} \times 1000 \times ((2 V_{A})^{2} - V_{A}^{2})$
$700 = 500 \times (4 V_{A}^{2} - V_{A}^{2})$
$700 = 500 \times 3 V_{A}^{2}$
$V_{A}^{2} = \frac{700}{1500} = \frac{7}{15} \; m^{2}/s^{2}$
$V_{A} = \sqrt{\frac{7}{15}} \approx 0.683 \; m/s = 68.3 \; cm/s$.
The rate of flow $Q = A_{A} V_{A} = 40 \; cm^{2} \times 68.3 \; cm/s \approx 2732 \; cm^{3}/s$. Given the options,the closest value is $2720 \; cm^{3}/s$.
69
PhysicsMediumMCQJEE Main · 2020
One end of a straight uniform $1\; m$ long bar is pivoted on a horizontal table. It is released from rest when it makes an angle $30^{\circ}$ with the horizontal (see figure). Its angular speed when it hits the table is given as $\sqrt{n}\; s^{-1},$ where $n$ is an integer. The value of $n$ is
Question diagram
A
$10$
B
$13$
C
$15$
D
$18$

Solution

(C) Let the length of the bar be $\ell = 1\; m$ and its mass be $m$. The moment of inertia of the bar about the pivot point is $I = \frac{m\ell^2}{3}$.
Using the principle of conservation of mechanical energy,the initial potential energy of the center of mass of the bar is converted into rotational kinetic energy when it hits the table.
The initial height of the center of mass from the table is $h = \frac{\ell}{2} \sin 30^{\circ}$.
Initial potential energy $U_i = mgh = mg \left(\frac{\ell}{2}\right) \sin 30^{\circ}$.
Final potential energy $U_f = 0$ (at the table level).
Initial kinetic energy $K_i = 0$ (released from rest).
Final rotational kinetic energy $K_f = \frac{1}{2} I \omega^2$.
By conservation of energy: $U_i + K_i = U_f + K_f$
$mg \left(\frac{\ell}{2}\right) \sin 30^{\circ} = \frac{1}{2} \left(\frac{m\ell^2}{3}\right) \omega^2$
Substituting $\ell = 1\; m$ and $\sin 30^{\circ} = 0.5$:
$mg \left(\frac{1}{2}\right) (0.5) = \frac{1}{2} \left(\frac{m(1)^2}{3}\right) \omega^2$
$mg \left(\frac{1}{4}\right) = \frac{m}{6} \omega^2$
$\frac{g}{4} = \frac{\omega^2}{6} \Rightarrow \omega^2 = \frac{6g}{4} = 1.5g$.
Taking $g = 10\; m/s^2$,we get $\omega^2 = 1.5 \times 10 = 15$.
Thus,$\omega = \sqrt{15}\; s^{-1}$.
Comparing with $\sqrt{n}$,we get $n = 15$.
Solution diagram
70
PhysicsDifficultMCQJEE Main · 2020
The distance $x$ covered by a particle in one-dimensional motion varies with time $t$ as $x^{2}=at^{2}+2bt+c$. If the acceleration of the particle depends on $x$ as $x^{-n}$,where $n$ is an integer,the value of $n$ is
A
$9$
B
$6$
C
$4$
D
$3$

Solution

(D) Given $x^{2} = at^{2} + 2bt + c$.
Differentiating with respect to $t$:
$2x \frac{dx}{dt} = 2at + 2b$
$x v = at + b$,where $v = \frac{dx}{dt}$.
Differentiating again with respect to $t$:
$v \frac{dx}{dt} + x \frac{dv}{dt} = a$
$v^{2} + x a' = a$,where $a' = \frac{dv}{dt}$ is the acceleration.
From $x v = at + b$,we have $v = \frac{at+b}{x}$.
Substituting $v$ into the equation:
$x a' = a - v^{2} = a - \left(\frac{at+b}{x}\right)^{2}$
$x a' = \frac{ax^{2} - (at+b)^{2}}{x^{2}}$
Substitute $x^{2} = at^{2} + 2bt + c$:
$x a' = \frac{a(at^{2} + 2bt + c) - (a^{2}t^{2} + 2abt + b^{2})}{x^{2}}$
$x a' = \frac{a^{2}t^{2} + 2abt + ac - a^{2}t^{2} - 2abt - b^{2}}{x^{2}}$
$x a' = \frac{ac - b^{2}}{x^{2}}$
$a' = \frac{ac - b^{2}}{x^{3}}$
Thus,$a' \propto x^{-3}$. Comparing with $x^{-n}$,we get $n = 3$.
71
PhysicsMediumMCQJEE Main · 2020
$A$ body of mass $m=10 \; kg$ is attached to one end of a wire of length $L=0.3 \; m$. The maximum angular speed (in $rad \; s^{-1}$) with which it can be rotated about its other end in a space station is (Breaking stress of wire $= 4.8 \times 10^{7} \; N m^{-2}$ and area of cross-section of the wire $= 10^{-2} \; cm^{2}$)
A
$8$
B
$7$
C
$11$
D
$4$

Solution

(D) The tension $T$ in the wire provides the necessary centripetal force for circular motion: $T = m \omega^{2} L$.
The breaking stress is defined as the maximum force per unit area: $\text{Breaking Stress} = \frac{T}{A}$.
Substituting the expression for tension: $\text{Breaking Stress} = \frac{m \omega^{2} L}{A}$.
Given: $m = 10 \; kg$,$L = 0.3 \; m$,$\text{Breaking Stress} = 4.8 \times 10^{7} \; N m^{-2}$,and $A = 10^{-2} \; cm^{2} = 10^{-2} \times 10^{-4} \; m^{2} = 10^{-6} \; m^{2}$.
Rearranging for $\omega^{2}$: $\omega^{2} = \frac{(\text{Breaking Stress}) \times A}{m \times L}$.
$\omega^{2} = \frac{4.8 \times 10^{7} \times 10^{-6}}{10 \times 0.3} = \frac{48}{3} = 16$.
Therefore,$\omega = \sqrt{16} = 4 \; rad \; s^{-1}$.
72
PhysicsDifficultMCQJEE Main · 2020
The displacement-time graph of a particle executing $S.H.M.$ is given in the figure: (sketch is schematic and not to scale). Which of the following statements is/are true for this motion?
$(A)$ The force is zero at $t = \frac{3T}{4}$
$(B)$ The acceleration is maximum at $t = T$
$(C)$ The speed is maximum at $t = \frac{T}{4}$
$(D)$ The $P.E.$ is equal to $K.E.$ of the oscillation at $t = \frac{T}{2}$
Question diagram
A
$(A), (B)$ and $(D)$
B
$(B), (C)$ and $(D)$
C
$(A)$ and $(D)$
D
$(A), (B)$ and $(C)$

Solution

(D) From the graph,the displacement $x$ follows a cosine function starting from $x = A$ at $t = 0$,so $x(t) = A \cos(\omega t)$.
$(A)$ At $t = \frac{3T}{4}$,the displacement $x = A \cos(\omega \cdot \frac{3T}{4}) = A \cos(\frac{3\pi}{2}) = 0$. Since $F = -m\omega^2 x$,if $x = 0$,then $F = 0$. Thus,$(A)$ is true.
$(B)$ At $t = T$,$x = A \cos(\omega T) = A \cos(2\pi) = A$. The acceleration $a = -\omega^2 x = -\omega^2 A$. The magnitude of acceleration is maximum at the extreme positions $(x = \pm A)$. Thus,$(B)$ is true.
$(C)$ At $t = \frac{T}{4}$,$x = A \cos(\omega \cdot \frac{T}{4}) = A \cos(\frac{\pi}{2}) = 0$. The speed $v = \omega \sqrt{A^2 - x^2}$ is maximum when $x = 0$. Thus,$(C)$ is true.
$(D)$ At $t = \frac{T}{2}$,$x = A \cos(\omega \cdot \frac{T}{2}) = A \cos(\pi) = -A$. At $x = -A$,$P.E.$ is maximum and $K.E. = 0$. Therefore,$P.E. \neq K.E.$. Thus,$(D)$ is false.
Therefore,statements $(A), (B),$ and $(C)$ are true.
73
PhysicsMediumMCQJEE Main · 2020
$A$ heat engine is involved with an exchange of heat of $1915\, J,$ $-40\, J,$ $+125\, J,$ and $-Q\, J$ during one cycle,achieving an efficiency of $50.0 \%$. The value of $Q$ is ....... $J$.
A
$640$
B
$400$
C
$980$
D
$40$

Solution

(C) The efficiency $\eta$ of a heat engine is defined as the ratio of the net work done to the total heat supplied.
$\eta = \frac{W}{Q_{\text{in}}} = \frac{Q_{\text{net}}}{Q_{\text{in}}}$
Here,the net heat exchanged in one cycle is $Q_{\text{net}} = 1915 - 40 + 125 - Q = 2000 - Q$.
The heat supplied $(Q_{\text{in}})$ is the sum of all positive heat exchanges: $Q_{\text{in}} = 1915 + 125 = 2040\, J$.
Given $\eta = 50.0\% = 0.5$,we have:
$0.5 = \frac{2000 - Q}{2040}$
$1020 = 2000 - Q$
$Q = 2000 - 1020 = 980\, J$.
74
PhysicsMediumMCQJEE Main · 2020
If momentum $(P)$,area $(A)$ and time $(T)$ are taken to be the fundamental quantities,then the dimensional formula for energy is:
A
$[P A^{-1} T^{-2}]$
B
$[P A^{1/2} T^{-1}]$
C
$[P^2 A T^{-2}]$
D
$[P^{1/2} A T^{-1}]$

Solution

(B) Let the dimensional formula for energy be $[E] = [P]^x [A]^y [T]^z$.
Substituting the dimensions of each quantity:
$[M L^2 T^{-2}] = [M L T^{-1}]^x [L^2]^y [T]^z$.
Equating the powers of $M, L,$ and $T$ on both sides:
$M^1 L^2 T^{-2} = M^x L^{x+2y} T^{-x+z}$.
Comparing the exponents:
For $M$: $x = 1$.
For $L$: $x + 2y = 2$. Substituting $x=1$,we get $1 + 2y = 2$,which implies $2y = 1$,so $y = 1/2$.
For $T$: $-x + z = -2$. Substituting $x=1$,we get $-1 + z = -2$,which implies $z = -1$.
Thus,the dimensional formula for energy is $[P^1 A^{1/2} T^{-1}]$ or $[P A^{1/2} T^{-1}]$.
75
PhysicsDifficultMCQJEE Main · 2020
$A$ capillary tube made of glass with a radius of $0.15\, mm$ is dipped vertically in a beaker filled with methylene iodide (surface tension $= 0.05\, N m^{-1}$,density $= 667\, kg m^{-3}$),which rises to a height $h$ in the tube. It is observed that the two tangents drawn from the liquid-glass interfaces (from opposite sides of the capillary) make an angle of $60^{\circ}$ with one another. Then $h$ is close to $...... m$ $(g = 10\, m s^{-2})$
A
$0.137$
B
$0.172$
C
$0.087$
D
$0.049$

Solution

(C) Let $r$ be the radius of the capillary tube and $R$ be the radius of the meniscus.
From the geometry of the meniscus,the angle of contact $\theta$ is related to the angle between the tangents. Since the tangents make an angle of $60^{\circ}$ with each other,the angle between the tangent and the vertical wall is $30^{\circ}$. Thus,the contact angle $\theta = 30^{\circ}$.
From the geometry,$\cos \theta = \frac{r}{R}$,so $R = \frac{r}{\cos 30^{\circ}} = \frac{r}{\sqrt{3}/2} = \frac{2r}{\sqrt{3}}$.
Given $r = 0.15 \times 10^{-3} m$,we have $R = \frac{2 \times 0.15 \times 10^{-3}}{\sqrt{3}} = \frac{0.3 \times 10^{-3}}{\sqrt{3}} m$.
The height $h$ of the liquid column is given by $h = \frac{2T \cos \theta}{\rho g r}$.
Substituting the values: $h = \frac{2 \times 0.05 \times \cos 30^{\circ}}{667 \times 10 \times 0.15 \times 10^{-3}}$.
Alternatively,using $h = \frac{2T}{\rho g R}$:
$h = \frac{2 \times 0.05}{667 \times 10 \times (\frac{0.3 \times 10^{-3}}{\sqrt{3}})} = \frac{0.1 \times \sqrt{3}}{6670 \times 0.3 \times 10^{-3}} = \frac{0.1732}{2.001} \approx 0.0865\, m$.
Rounding to the nearest value,$h \approx 0.087\, m$.
Solution diagram
76
PhysicsMediumMCQJEE Main · 2020
An ideal gas in a closed container is slowly heated. As its temperature increases,which of the following statements are true?
$(A)$ The mean free path of the molecules decreases.
$(B)$ The mean collision time between the molecules decreases.
$(C)$ The mean free path remains unchanged.
$(D)$ The mean collision time remains unchanged.
A
$(C)$ and $(D)$
B
$(A)$ and $(B)$
C
$(A)$ and $(D)$
D
$(B)$ and $(C)$

Solution

(D) The mean free path $\lambda$ of molecules of an ideal gas is given by the formula:
$\lambda = \frac{V}{\sqrt{2} \pi d^2 N}$
where $V$ is the volume of the container,$d$ is the molecular diameter,and $N$ is the number of molecules.
Since the gas is in a closed container,the volume $V$ and the number of molecules $N$ remain constant as the temperature increases. Therefore,the mean free path $\lambda$ remains unchanged.
The mean collision time $\tau$ is defined as the ratio of the mean free path to the average speed of the molecules $(v_{av})$:
$\tau = \frac{\lambda}{v_{av}}$
Since the average speed $v_{av}$ of gas molecules is proportional to $\sqrt{T}$,we have:
$\tau \propto \frac{1}{\sqrt{T}}$
As the temperature $T$ increases,the average speed of the molecules increases,which causes the mean collision time $\tau$ to decrease.
Thus,statements $(B)$ and $(C)$ are correct.
77
PhysicsDifficultMCQJEE Main · 2020
Two uniform circular discs are rotating independently in the same direction around their common axis passing through their centres. The moment of inertia and angular velocity of the first disc are $0.1 \; kg \cdot m^{2}$ and $10 \; rad \cdot s^{-1}$ respectively,while those for the second one are $0.2 \; kg \cdot m^{2}$ and $5 \; rad \cdot s^{-1}$ respectively. At some instant,they get stuck together and start rotating as a single system about their common axis with some angular speed. The kinetic energy of the combined system is ........... $J$.
A
$3.33$
B
$0.67$
C
$1.67$
D
$6.67$

Solution

(D) Since the discs are rotating in the same direction,the total angular momentum is conserved.
Initial angular momentum $L_{i} = I_{1}\omega_{1} + I_{2}\omega_{2}$
$L_{i} = (0.1 \times 10) + (0.2 \times 5) = 1 + 1 = 2 \; kg \cdot m^{2} \cdot s^{-1}$
Final angular momentum $L_{f} = (I_{1} + I_{2})\omega_{f}$
$2 = (0.1 + 0.2) \omega_{f} = 0.3 \omega_{f}$
$\omega_{f} = \frac{2}{0.3} = \frac{20}{3} \; rad \cdot s^{-1}$
Final kinetic energy $K_{f} = \frac{1}{2}(I_{1} + I_{2})\omega_{f}^{2}$
$K_{f} = \frac{1}{2}(0.3) \left(\frac{20}{3}\right)^{2} = 0.15 \times \frac{400}{9} = \frac{15}{100} \times \frac{400}{9} = \frac{60}{9} = 6.67 \; J$.
78
PhysicsDifficultMCQJEE Main · 2020
When the temperature of a metal wire is increased from $0^{\circ} \,C$ to $10^{\circ} \,C$,its length increases by $0.02 \%$. The percentage change in its mass density will be closest to: (in $\%$)
A
$0.008$
B
$0.06$
C
$0.8$
D
$2.3$

Solution

(B) Given that the fractional change in length is $\frac{\Delta L}{L} = 0.02 \% = 2 \times 10^{-4}$.
Since $\Delta L = L \alpha \Delta T$,we have $\alpha \Delta T = 2 \times 10^{-4}$.
The volume $V$ of the wire is $V = A \times L$,where $A$ is the cross-sectional area.
The density $\rho$ is given by $\rho = \frac{M}{V} = \frac{M}{AL}$.
Taking the logarithmic derivative,we get $\frac{\Delta \rho}{\rho} = - (\frac{\Delta A}{A} + \frac{\Delta L}{L})$.
Since $\frac{\Delta A}{A} = 2 \alpha \Delta T$ and $\frac{\Delta L}{L} = \alpha \Delta T$,the fractional change in density is $\frac{\Delta \rho}{\rho} = -(2 \alpha \Delta T + \alpha \Delta T) = -3 \alpha \Delta T$.
Substituting $\alpha \Delta T = 0.02 \%$,we get $\frac{\Delta \rho}{\rho} = -3 \times 0.02 \% = -0.06 \%$.
The magnitude of the percentage change is $0.06 \%$.
79
PhysicsDifficultMCQJEE Main · 2020
$A$ particle of mass $m$ is moving along the $x$-axis with initial velocity $u \hat{i}$. It collides elastically with a particle of mass $10m$ at rest and then moves with half its initial kinetic energy (see figure). If $\sin \theta_{1} = \sqrt{n} \sin \theta_{2}$,then the value of $n$ is:
Question diagram
A
$20$
B
$26$
C
$10$
D
$15$

Solution

(C) Let the velocity of mass $m$ after collision be $v_1$ and the velocity of mass $10m$ after collision be $v_2$.
$1$. Conservation of momentum along the $y$-axis:
Since the initial momentum along the $y$-axis is zero,the final momentum components along the $y$-axis must cancel out:
$m v_1 \sin \theta_1 = 10m v_2 \sin \theta_2$
$v_1 \sin \theta_1 = 10 v_2 \sin \theta_2$ --- $(i)$
$2$. Kinetic energy condition:
The final kinetic energy of the particle of mass $m$ is half its initial kinetic energy:
$\frac{1}{2} m v_1^2 = \frac{1}{2} (\frac{1}{2} m u^2)$
$v_1^2 = \frac{u^2}{2} \Rightarrow v_1 = \frac{u}{\sqrt{2}}$ --- (ii)
$3$. Conservation of energy for elastic collision:
Initial kinetic energy = Final kinetic energy
$\frac{1}{2} m u^2 = \frac{1}{2} m v_1^2 + \frac{1}{2} (10m) v_2^2$
$u^2 = v_1^2 + 10 v_2^2$
Substitute $v_1^2 = \frac{u^2}{2}$:
$u^2 = \frac{u^2}{2} + 10 v_2^2$
$\frac{u^2}{2} = 10 v_2^2 \Rightarrow v_2^2 = \frac{u^2}{20} \Rightarrow v_2 = \frac{u}{\sqrt{20}}$ --- (iii)
$4$. Substituting (ii) and (iii) into $(i)$:
$(\frac{u}{\sqrt{2}}) \sin \theta_1 = 10 (\frac{u}{\sqrt{20}}) \sin \theta_2$
$\sin \theta_1 = 10 \cdot \frac{\sqrt{2}}{\sqrt{20}} \sin \theta_2$
$\sin \theta_1 = 10 \cdot \frac{1}{\sqrt{10}} \sin \theta_2$
$\sin \theta_1 = \sqrt{10} \sin \theta_2$
Comparing with $\sin \theta_1 = \sqrt{n} \sin \theta_2$,we get $n = 10$.
Solution diagram
80
PhysicsDifficultMCQJEE Main · 2020
$A$ square shaped hole of side $l = \frac{a}{2}$ is carved out at a distance $d = \frac{a}{2}$ from the centre $O$ of a uniform circular disk of radius $a$. If the distance of the centre of mass of the remaining portion from $O$ is $-\frac{a}{X}$,find the value of $X$ (to the nearest integer).
Question diagram
A
$15$
B
$45$
C
$30$
D
$23$

Solution

(D) Let $\sigma$ be the surface mass density of the disk material.
Mass of the complete disk,$M_1 = \sigma \pi a^2$,with its centre of mass at $O$ (coordinate $x_1 = 0$).
Mass of the removed square portion,$M_2 = \sigma l^2 = \sigma (\frac{a}{2})^2 = \sigma \frac{a^2}{4}$,with its centre of mass at distance $d = \frac{a}{2}$ from $O$ (coordinate $x_2 = \frac{a}{2}$).
The centre of mass of the remaining portion $X_{com}$ is given by:
$X_{com} = \frac{M_1 x_1 - M_2 x_2}{M_1 - M_2}$
$X_{com} = \frac{(\sigma \pi a^2)(0) - (\sigma \frac{a^2}{4})(\frac{a}{2})}{\sigma \pi a^2 - \sigma \frac{a^2}{4}}$
$X_{com} = \frac{-\frac{\sigma a^3}{8}}{\sigma a^2 (\pi - \frac{1}{4})} = \frac{-\frac{a}{8}}{\frac{4\pi - 1}{4}} = -\frac{a}{2(4\pi - 1)}$
Comparing this with $-\frac{a}{X}$,we get $X = 2(4\pi - 1) = 8\pi - 2$.
Using $\pi \approx 3.14159$,$X \approx 8(3.14159) - 2 = 25.1327 - 2 = 23.1327$.
The nearest integer value of $X$ is $23$.
Solution diagram
81
PhysicsDifficultMCQJEE Main · 2020
$A$ wire of density $9 \times 10^{-3} \,kg\, cm^{-3}$ is stretched between two clamps $1 \,m$ apart. The resulting strain in the wire is $4.9 \times 10^{-4}$. The lowest frequency of the transverse vibrations in the wire is......$Hz$ (Young's modulus of wire $Y = 9 \times 10^{10} \,N m^{-2}$),(to the nearest integer).
A
$35$
B
$55$
C
$20$
D
$40$

Solution

(A) Given: Density $\rho = 9 \times 10^{-3} \,kg/cm^3 = 9 \times 10^{-3} / 10^{-6} \,kg/m^3 = 9000 \,kg/m^3$.
Length $L = 1 \,m$.
Strain $= 4.9 \times 10^{-4}$.
Young's modulus $Y = 9 \times 10^{10} \,N/m^2$.
For the lowest frequency (fundamental mode),$L = \lambda / 2$,so $\lambda = 2L = 2 \,m$.
The frequency $f$ is given by $f = v / \lambda = (1 / \lambda) \sqrt{T / \mu}$,where $T$ is tension and $\mu$ is mass per unit length.
Since $Y = (T/A) / \text{strain}$,we have $T = Y \cdot A \cdot \text{strain}$.
Also,$\mu = m/L = (\rho \cdot V) / L = (\rho \cdot A \cdot L) / L = \rho \cdot A$.
Substituting these into the frequency formula:
$f = (1 / 2L) \sqrt{(Y \cdot A \cdot \text{strain}) / (\rho \cdot A)} = (1 / 2L) \sqrt{(Y \cdot \text{strain}) / \rho}$.
Substituting the values:
$f = (1 / 2) \sqrt{(9 \times 10^{10} \times 4.9 \times 10^{-4}) / 9000} = (1 / 2) \sqrt{(9 \times 10^6 \times 4.9) / 9000} = (1 / 2) \sqrt{10^3 \times 4.9} = (1 / 2) \sqrt{4900} = 70 / 2 = 35 \,Hz$.
82
PhysicsDifficultMCQJEE Main · 2020
$A$ particle of mass $m$ with an initial velocity $u\hat{i}$ collides perfectly elastically with a mass $3m$ at rest. It moves with a velocity $v\hat{j}$ after collision. Then, $v$ is given by:
A
$v=\sqrt{\frac{2}{3}} u$
B
$v =\frac{1}{\sqrt{6}} u$
C
$v=\frac{u}{\sqrt{3}}$
D
$v=\frac{u}{\sqrt{2}}$

Solution

(D) From the law of conservation of linear momentum:
$\vec{P}_i = \vec{P}_f$
$m(u\hat{i}) + 3m(0) = m(v\hat{j}) + 3m\vec{v}_1$
$m(u\hat{i} - v\hat{j}) = 3m\vec{v}_1$
$\vec{v}_1 = \frac{u\hat{i} - v\hat{j}}{3}$
Taking the magnitude squared:
$v_1^2 = \frac{u^2 + v^2}{9} \quad \dots(1)$
Since the collision is perfectly elastic, kinetic energy is conserved:
$K_i = K_f$
$\frac{1}{2}mu^2 + 0 = \frac{1}{2}mv^2 + \frac{1}{2}(3m)v_1^2$
$u^2 = v^2 + 3v_1^2$
Substituting equation $(1)$ into the energy equation:
$u^2 = v^2 + 3\left(\frac{u^2 + v^2}{9}\right)$
$u^2 = v^2 + \frac{u^2 + v^2}{3}$
$3u^2 = 3v^2 + u^2 + v^2$
$2u^2 = 4v^2$
$v^2 = \frac{u^2}{2}$
$v = \frac{u}{\sqrt{2}}$
Solution diagram
83
PhysicsDifficultMCQJEE Main · 2020
The least count of the main scale of a vernier callipers is $1\, mm$. Its vernier scale is divided into $10$ divisions and coincides with $9$ divisions of the main scale. When jaws are touching each other,the $7^{th}$ division of the vernier scale coincides with a division of the main scale and the zero of the vernier scale lies to the right side of the zero of the main scale. When this vernier is used to measure the length of a cylinder,the zero of the vernier scale is between $3.1\, cm$ and $3.2\, cm$ and the $4^{th}$ $VSD$ coincides with a main scale division. The length of the cylinder is $.....\, cm$. ($VSD$ is vernier scale division)
A
$3.21$
B
$2.99$
C
$3.2$
D
$3.07$

Solution

(D) $1$. Calculate the Least Count $(LC)$: $LC = 1\, MS D - 1\, VSD$. Given $10\, VSD = 9\, MSD$,so $1\, VSD = 0.9\, MSD = 0.9\, mm$. Thus,$LC = 1\, mm - 0.9\, mm = 0.1\, mm = 0.01\, cm$.
$2$. Calculate Zero Error: Since the zero of the vernier scale is to the right of the main scale zero,the error is positive. The $7^{th}$ division coincides,so $Zero\, Error = + (7 \times LC) = + (7 \times 0.01\, cm) = +0.07\, cm$.
$3$. Calculate Observed Reading: $Main\, Scale\, Reading (MSR) = 3.1\, cm$. $Vernier\, Scale\, Reading (VSR) = 4 \times LC = 4 \times 0.01\, cm = 0.04\, cm$. $Observed\, Reading = MSR + VSR = 3.1\, cm + 0.04\, cm = 3.14\, cm$.
$4$. Calculate Corrected Length: $Corrected\, Length = Observed\, Reading - Zero\, Error = 3.14\, cm - 0.07\, cm = 3.07\, cm$.
84
PhysicsDifficultMCQJEE Main · 2020
The mass density of a spherical galaxy varies as $\frac{K}{r}$ over a large distance $r$ from its centre. In that region,a small star is in a circular orbit of radius $R$. Then the period of revolution,$T$ depends on $R$ as
A
$T \propto R$
B
$T^2 \propto \frac{1}{R^3}$
C
$T^2 \propto R$
D
$T^2 \propto R^3$

Solution

(C) The mass of the galaxy within a radius $R$ is calculated by integrating the density $\rho(r) = \frac{K}{r}$ over the volume.
$dm = \rho(r) \cdot 4\pi r^2 dr = \left(\frac{K}{r}\right) \cdot 4\pi r^2 dr = 4\pi K r dr$
$M(R) = \int_{0}^{R} 4\pi K r dr = 4\pi K \left[ \frac{r^2}{2} \right]_{0}^{R} = 2\pi K R^2$
For a star of mass $m$ in a circular orbit of radius $R$,the gravitational force provides the necessary centripetal force:
$\frac{G M(R) m}{R^2} = \frac{m v^2}{R}$
Substituting $M(R) = 2\pi K R^2$:
$\frac{G (2\pi K R^2) m}{R^2} = \frac{m v^2}{R} \Rightarrow 2\pi G K m = \frac{m v^2}{R} \Rightarrow v^2 = 2\pi G K R$
$v = \sqrt{2\pi G K R}$
The time period $T$ is given by $T = \frac{2\pi R}{v}$.
$T = \frac{2\pi R}{\sqrt{2\pi G K R}} = \sqrt{\frac{4\pi^2 R^2}{2\pi G K R}} = \sqrt{\frac{2\pi R}{G K}} \propto \sqrt{R}$
Squaring both sides,we get $T^2 \propto R$.
Solution diagram
85
PhysicsDifficultMCQJEE Main · 2020
Shown in the figure is a rigid and uniform one-meter-long rod $AB$ held in a horizontal position by two strings tied to its ends and attached to the ceiling. The rod has a mass $m$ and another weight of mass $2m$ is hung at a distance of $75\, cm$ from $A$. The tension in the string at $A$ is $....mg$.
Question diagram
A
$2$
B
$0.5$
C
$0.75$
D
$1$

Solution

(D) For the rod to be in rotational equilibrium,the net torque about any point must be zero.
Let us calculate the torque about point $B$:
$\tau_{B} = 0$
Taking clockwise torques as positive and counter-clockwise as negative:
$(T_{A} \times 100) - (mg \times 50) - (2mg \times 25) = 0$
$100 T_{A} = 50mg + 50mg$
$100 T_{A} = 100mg$
$T_{A} = 1mg$
Thus,the tension in the string at $A$ is $1mg$.
Solution diagram
86
PhysicsDifficultMCQJEE Main · 2020
$A$ bead of mass $m$ stays at point $P(a, b)$ on a wire bent in the shape of a parabola $y = 4Cx^2$ and rotating with angular speed $\omega$ (see figure). The value of $\omega$ is (neglect friction).
Question diagram
A
$\sqrt{\frac{2gC}{ab}}$
B
$2\sqrt{2gC}$
C
$\sqrt{\frac{2g}{C}}$
D
$2\sqrt{gC}$

Solution

(B) In the rotating frame of reference,the forces acting on the bead are the gravitational force $mg$ (downwards),the centrifugal force $m x \omega^2$ (outwards),and the normal reaction $N$ from the wire.
For the bead to remain stationary at point $P(a, b)$,the net force along the tangent to the parabola must be zero.
The slope of the parabola $y = 4Cx^2$ is given by $\frac{dy}{dx} = 8Cx$.
At point $P(a, b)$,the slope is $\tan \theta = 8Ca$,where $\theta$ is the angle the tangent makes with the horizontal.
Resolving forces along the tangent,we have $m x \omega^2 \cos \theta = mg \sin \theta$.
This simplifies to $x \omega^2 = g \tan \theta$.
Substituting $x = a$ and $\tan \theta = 8Ca$,we get $a \omega^2 = g(8Ca)$.
Thus,$\omega^2 = 8gC$,which gives $\omega = \sqrt{8gC} = 2\sqrt{2gC}$.
Solution diagram
87
PhysicsDifficultMCQJEE Main · 2020
$A$ cylindrical vessel containing a liquid is rotated about its axis so that the liquid rises at its sides as shown in the figure. The diameter of the vessel is $10 \, cm$ and the angular speed of rotation is $\omega \, rad \, s^{-1}$. The difference in the height,$h$ (in $cm$),of the liquid at the centre of the vessel and at the side will be
Question diagram
A
$\frac{25 \omega^{2}}{2 g}$
B
$\frac{2 \omega^{2}}{5 g}$
C
$\frac{5 \omega^{2}}{2 g}$
D
$\frac{2 \omega^{2}}{25 g}$

Solution

(A) The surface of a rotating liquid takes the shape of a paraboloid defined by the equation $z = \frac{\omega^2 r^2}{2g}$.
Here,the diameter of the vessel is $10 \, cm$,so the radius $R = 5 \, cm$.
The difference in height $h$ between the center $(r=0)$ and the side $(r=R)$ is given by:
$h = \frac{\omega^2 R^2}{2g}$
Substituting $R = 5 \, cm$:
$h = \frac{\omega^2 (5)^2}{2g} = \frac{25 \omega^2}{2g}$.
Solution diagram
88
PhysicsDifficultMCQJEE Main · 2020
$A$ uniform cylinder of mass $M$ and radius $R$ is to be pulled over a step of height $a$ $(a < R)$ by applying a force $F$ at its centre $'O'$ perpendicular to the plane through the axes of the cylinder on the edge of the step (see figure). The minimum value of $F$ required is
Question diagram
A
$Mg \sqrt{1-\frac{ a ^{2}}{ R ^{2}}}$
B
$Mg \sqrt{\left(\frac{ R }{ R - a }\right)^{2}-1}$
C
$Mg \frac{ a }{ R }$
D
$M g \sqrt{1-\left(\frac{R-a}{R}\right)^{2}}$

Solution

(D) To pull the cylinder over the step,the torque produced by the applied force $F$ about the edge of the step must be greater than or equal to the torque produced by the gravitational force $Mg$ about the same edge.
Let the edge of the step be point $P$. The perpendicular distance from $P$ to the line of action of force $F$ is $R$.
The perpendicular distance from $P$ to the line of action of the weight $Mg$ is $x$.
From the geometry of the cylinder,we have a right-angled triangle with hypotenuse $R$ and one side $(R-a)$. Thus,$x = \sqrt{R^2 - (R-a)^2}$.
For the cylinder to just start moving over the step,the torques must balance:
$F \times R = Mg \times x$
$F \times R = Mg \times \sqrt{R^2 - (R-a)^2}$
$F = \frac{Mg}{R} \sqrt{R^2 - (R-a)^2}$
$F = Mg \sqrt{\frac{R^2 - (R-a)^2}{R^2}}$
$F = Mg \sqrt{1 - \left(\frac{R-a}{R}\right)^2}$
Solution diagram
89
PhysicsMediumMCQJEE Main · 2020
$A$ gas mixture consists of $3$ moles of oxygen and $5$ moles of argon at temperature $T$. Assuming the gases to be ideal and the oxygen bond to be rigid,the total internal energy (in units of $RT$) of the mixture is
A
$11$
B
$15$
C
$20$
D
$13$

Solution

(B) The internal energy $U$ of a gas mixture is given by the sum of the internal energies of its components: $U = U_1 + U_2$.
For an ideal gas,the internal energy is $U = \frac{f}{2} nRT$,where $f$ is the degrees of freedom.
Oxygen $(O_2)$ is a diatomic gas. Since the bond is rigid,its degrees of freedom $f_1 = 5$ ($3$ translational + $2$ rotational).
Argon $(Ar)$ is a monatomic gas,so its degrees of freedom $f_2 = 3$.
Given $n_1 = 3$ moles of oxygen and $n_2 = 5$ moles of argon.
Total internal energy $U = \frac{f_1}{2} n_1 RT + \frac{f_2}{2} n_2 RT$.
$U = \left( \frac{5}{2} \times 3 \times RT \right) + \left( \frac{3}{2} \times 5 \times RT \right)$.
$U = \frac{15}{2} RT + \frac{15}{2} RT = \frac{30}{2} RT = 15 RT$.
Thus,the total internal energy in units of $RT$ is $15$.
90
PhysicsMediumMCQJEE Main · 2020
If speed $V$,area $A$,and force $F$ are chosen as fundamental units,then the dimension of Young's modulus will be:
A
$FA^{-1}V^{0}$
B
$FA^{2}V^{-1}$
C
$FA^{2}V^{-3}$
D
$FA^{2}V^{-2}$

Solution

(A) Let the dimension of Young's modulus $Y$ be expressed as $Y = F^{x} A^{y} V^{z}$.
The dimensional formula for Young's modulus is $[M^{1} L^{-1} T^{-2}]$.
The dimensional formula for Force $F$ is $[M^{1} L^{1} T^{-2}]$.
The dimensional formula for Area $A$ is $[L^{2}]$.
The dimensional formula for Speed $V$ is $[L^{1} T^{-1}]$.
Substituting these into the equation:
$[M^{1} L^{-1} T^{-2}] = [M^{1} L^{1} T^{-2}]^{x} [L^{2}]^{y} [L^{1} T^{-1}]^{z}$
$[M^{1} L^{-1} T^{-2}] = [M]^{x} [L]^{x + 2y + z} [T]^{-2x - z}$
Comparing the powers of $M$,$L$,and $T$ on both sides:
For $M$: $x = 1$
For $T$: $-2x - z = -2 \Rightarrow -2(1) - z = -2 \Rightarrow z = 0$
For $L$: $x + 2y + z = -1 \Rightarrow 1 + 2y + 0 = -1 \Rightarrow 2y = -2 \Rightarrow y = -1$
Thus,the dimension of Young's modulus is $F^{1} A^{-1} V^{0}$.
91
PhysicsMediumMCQJEE Main · 2020
Train $A$ and train $B$ are running on parallel tracks in opposite directions with speeds of $36 \, km/h$ and $72 \, km/h$,respectively. $A$ person is walking in train $A$ in the direction opposite to its motion with a speed of $1.8 \, km/h$. The speed (in $m/s$) of this person as observed from train $B$ will be close to:
(take the distance between the tracks as negligible) (in $.5$)
A
$30$
B
$29$
C
$31$
D
$28$

Solution

(B) Let the direction of motion of train $A$ be positive $(+)$ and the direction of motion of train $B$ be negative $(-)$.
Velocity of train $A$ $(V_A)$ = $+36 \, km/h$.
Velocity of train $B$ $(V_B)$ = $-72 \, km/h$.
Velocity of the person with respect to train $A$ $(V_{m/A})$ = $-1.8 \, km/h$ (since the person is walking opposite to the motion of train $A$).
Velocity of the person with respect to the ground $(V_m)$ = $V_{m/A} + V_A = -1.8 + 36 = 34.2 \, km/h$.
Velocity of the person with respect to train $B$ $(V_{m/B})$ = $V_m - V_B = 34.2 - (-72) = 34.2 + 72 = 106.2 \, km/h$.
To convert $km/h$ to $m/s$,multiply by $\frac{5}{18}$:
$V_{m/B} = 106.2 \times \frac{5}{18} = 5.9 \times 5 = 29.5 \, m/s$.
Solution diagram
92
PhysicsMediumMCQJEE Main · 2020
Two identical strings $X$ and $Z$ made of the same material have tensions $T_{x}$ and $T_{z}$ in them. If their fundamental frequencies are $450\, Hz$ and $300\, Hz$,respectively,then the ratio $T_{x} / T_{z}$ is:
A
$0.44$
B
$1.5$
C
$2.25$
D
$1.25$

Solution

(C) The fundamental frequency $f$ of a stretched string is given by the formula: $f = \frac{1}{2L} \sqrt{\frac{T}{\mu}}$,where $L$ is the length,$T$ is the tension,and $\mu$ is the linear mass density.
Since the strings $X$ and $Z$ are identical and made of the same material,their length $L$ and linear mass density $\mu$ are the same.
Therefore,the frequency is directly proportional to the square root of the tension: $f \propto \sqrt{T}$.
Given $f_{x} = 450\, Hz$ and $f_{z} = 300\, Hz$,we have:
$\frac{f_{x}}{f_{z}} = \sqrt{\frac{T_{x}}{T_{z}}}$
Substituting the values:
$\frac{450}{300} = \sqrt{\frac{T_{x}}{T_{z}}}$
$1.5 = \sqrt{\frac{T_{x}}{T_{z}}}$
Squaring both sides:
$\frac{T_{x}}{T_{z}} = (1.5)^2 = 2.25$.
93
PhysicsDifficultMCQJEE Main · 2020
An engine takes in $5$ moles of air at $20\,^{\circ}C$ and $1\,atm$,and compresses it adiabatically to $1/10^{\text{th}}$ of the original volume. Assuming air to be a diatomic ideal gas made up of rigid molecules,the change in its internal energy during this process is $X\,kJ$. The value of $X$ to the nearest integer is
A
$46.87$
B
$45.78$
C
$55.78$
D
$50.23$

Solution

(A) For a diatomic gas with rigid molecules,the degrees of freedom $f = 5$ and the adiabatic index $\gamma = 1 + 2/f = 7/5 = 1.4$.
Initial temperature $T_1 = 20 + 273 = 293\,K$.
For an adiabatic process,$T_1 V_1^{\gamma-1} = T_2 V_2^{\gamma-1}$.
Given $V_2 = V_1 / 10$,we have $T_2 = T_1 (V_1 / V_2)^{\gamma-1} = 293 \times (10)^{1.4-1} = 293 \times 10^{0.4}$.
Using $10^{0.4} \approx 2.5118$,$T_2 = 293 \times 2.5118 \approx 735.96\,K$.
The change in internal energy is $\Delta U = n C_v \Delta T = n (fR/2) (T_2 - T_1)$.
Using $n = 5$,$f = 5$,and $R = 8.314\,J/(mol\cdot K)$:
$\Delta U = 5 \times (5 \times 8.314 / 2) \times (735.96 - 293) = 12.5 \times 8.314 \times 442.96 \approx 46056\,J = 46.056\,kJ$.
Rounding to the nearest integer,$X \approx 46$.
94
PhysicsDifficultMCQJEE Main · 2020
$A$ small block starts slipping down from a point $B$ on an inclined plane $AB$,which is making an angle $\theta$ with the horizontal. The section $BC$ is smooth and the remaining section $CA$ is rough with a coefficient of friction $\mu$. It is found that the block comes to rest as it reaches the bottom (point $A$) of the inclined plane. If $BC = 2AC$,the coefficient of friction is given by $\mu = k \tan \theta$. The value of $k$ is
A
$1$
B
$2$
C
$3$
D
$4$

Solution

(C) According to the work-energy theorem,the total work done by all forces on the block is equal to the change in its kinetic energy.
Since the block starts from rest at $B$ and comes to rest at $A$,the change in kinetic energy is $\Delta K = 0 - 0 = 0$.
The forces acting on the block are gravity and friction.
Work done by gravity $(W_g)$ = $mg \sin \theta \times (BC + AC)$.
Work done by friction $(W_f)$ = $-\mu mg \cos \theta \times AC$ (since friction only acts on the rough section $CA$).
Setting the total work to zero: $W_g + W_f = 0$.
$mg \sin \theta (BC + AC) - \mu mg \cos \theta (AC) = 0$.
Given $BC = 2AC$,substitute this into the equation:
$mg \sin \theta (2AC + AC) = \mu mg \cos \theta (AC)$.
$3mg \sin \theta (AC) = \mu mg \cos \theta (AC)$.
$3 \sin \theta = \mu \cos \theta$.
$\mu = 3 \tan \theta$.
Comparing this with $\mu = k \tan \theta$,we get $k = 3$.
Solution diagram
95
PhysicsDifficultMCQJEE Main · 2020
The mass density of a planet of radius $R$ varies with the distance $r$ from its centre as $\rho(r) = \rho_{0} \left(1 - \frac{r^{2}}{R^{2}}\right)$. Then the gravitational field is maximum at:
A
$r = \frac{1}{\sqrt{3}} R$
B
$r = \sqrt{\frac{5}{9}} R$
C
$r = \sqrt{\frac{3}{4}} R$
D
$r = R$

Solution

(B) The gravitational field $E$ at a distance $r$ inside the planet is given by Gauss's Law for gravity: $E(4\pi r^{2}) = 4\pi G M(r)$,where $M(r)$ is the mass enclosed within radius $r$.
$M(r) = \int_{0}^{r} \rho(r) 4\pi r^{2} dr = 4\pi \rho_{0} \int_{0}^{r} \left(1 - \frac{r^{2}}{R^{2}}\right) r^{2} dr$.
$M(r) = 4\pi \rho_{0} \left[ \frac{r^{3}}{3} - \frac{r^{5}}{5R^{2}} \right]$.
Thus,$E = \frac{G M(r)}{r^{2}} = 4\pi G \rho_{0} \left( \frac{r}{3} - \frac{r^{3}}{5R^{2}} \right)$.
To find the maximum field,set $\frac{dE}{dr} = 0$:
$\frac{dE}{dr} = 4\pi G \rho_{0} \left( \frac{1}{3} - \frac{3r^{2}}{5R^{2}} \right) = 0$.
$\frac{1}{3} = \frac{3r^{2}}{5R^{2}} \Rightarrow r^{2} = \frac{5R^{2}}{9} \Rightarrow r = \sqrt{\frac{5}{9}} R$.
96
PhysicsMediumMCQJEE Main · 2020
$A$ particle is moving unidirectionally on a horizontal plane under the action of a constant power supplying energy source. The displacement $(s)$ - time $(t)$ graph that describes the motion of the particle is (graphs are drawn schematically and are not to scale)
A
Option A
B
Option B
C
Option C
D
Option D

Solution

(C) The power $P$ supplied to the particle is constant. Since power is the rate of change of kinetic energy,we have $\frac{dK}{dt} = P$. Integrating this with respect to time,we get $K = Pt$ (assuming initial kinetic energy is zero).
Since $K = \frac{1}{2}mv^2$,we have $\frac{1}{2}mv^2 = Pt$,which implies $v = \sqrt{\frac{2P}{m}} t^{1/2}$.
Since velocity $v = \frac{ds}{dt}$,we have $\frac{ds}{dt} = \sqrt{\frac{2P}{m}} t^{1/2}$.
Integrating with respect to time,$s = \int \sqrt{\frac{2P}{m}} t^{1/2} dt = \sqrt{\frac{2P}{m}} \cdot \frac{2}{3} t^{3/2}$.
Thus,$s \propto t^{3/2}$.
The graph of $s$ versus $t$ for $s \propto t^{3/2}$ is a curve that is concave upwards (increasing slope),which corresponds to Graph $C$.
97
PhysicsMediumMCQJEE Main · 2020
To raise the temperature of a certain mass of gas by $50^{\circ} C$ at a constant pressure,$160$ calories of heat is required. When the same mass of gas is cooled by $100^{\circ} C$ at constant volume,$240$ calories of heat is released. How many degrees of freedom does each molecule of this gas have (assume gas to be ideal)?
A
$5$
B
$3$
C
$6$
D
$7$

Solution

(C) Given:
Heat at constant pressure: $Q_P = n C_P \Delta T_1 = 160 \text{ cal}$,where $\Delta T_1 = 50^{\circ} C$.
Heat at constant volume: $Q_V = n C_V \Delta T_2 = 240 \text{ cal}$,where $\Delta T_2 = 100^{\circ} C$.
From the first equation: $n C_P = \frac{160}{50} = 3.2$.
From the second equation: $n C_V = \frac{240}{100} = 2.4$.
Taking the ratio: $\frac{C_P}{C_V} = \gamma = \frac{3.2}{2.4} = \frac{4}{3}$.
The relation between degrees of freedom $f$ and adiabatic index $\gamma$ is $\gamma = 1 + \frac{2}{f}$.
Substituting $\gamma = \frac{4}{3}$: $\frac{4}{3} = 1 + \frac{2}{f} \Rightarrow \frac{1}{3} = \frac{2}{f} \Rightarrow f = 6$.
98
PhysicsMediumMCQJEE Main · 2020
$A$ block of mass $m$ attached to a massless spring is performing oscillatory motion of amplitude $A$ on a frictionless horizontal plane. If half of the mass of the block breaks off when it is passing through its equilibrium point,the amplitude of oscillation for the remaining system becomes $fA$. The value of $f$ is
A
$1/2$
B
$1/\sqrt{2}$
C
$1$
D
$\sqrt{2}$

Solution

(B) At the equilibrium position,the velocity of the block is maximum,given by $V_0 = \omega_0 A = \sqrt{\frac{k}{m}} A$.
When half the mass breaks off at the equilibrium position,the velocity of the remaining mass $m/2$ remains the same as $V_0$ because there is no impulsive force acting on the system in the horizontal direction.
Let the new amplitude be $A'$. The new angular frequency is $\omega' = \sqrt{\frac{k}{m/2}} = \sqrt{\frac{2k}{m}} = \sqrt{2} \omega_0$.
Since the velocity at the equilibrium position is $V_0 = \omega' A'$,we have:
$\omega_0 A = \omega' A'$
$\omega_0 A = (\sqrt{2} \omega_0) A'$
$A' = \frac{A}{\sqrt{2}}$.
Thus,$f = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}$.
99
PhysicsMediumMCQJEE Main · 2020
$A$ block of mass $1.9\, kg$ is at rest at the edge of a table of height $1\, m$. $A$ bullet of mass $0.1\, kg$ collides with the block and sticks to it. If the velocity of the bullet is $20\, m/s$ in the horizontal direction just before the collision,then the kinetic energy just before the combined system strikes the floor is $....J$. (Take $g = 10\, m/s^2$. Assume there is no rotational motion and loss of energy after the collision is negligible.)
A
$21$
B
$23$
C
$19$
D
$20$

Solution

(A) $1$. Conservation of linear momentum during the perfectly inelastic collision:
$m_b u = (m_b + m_B) v$
$0.1 \times 20 = (0.1 + 1.9) v$
$2 = 2v \Rightarrow v = 1\, m/s$
$2$. Conservation of mechanical energy for the combined system falling from height $h = 1\, m$:
$KE_f = PE_i + KE_i$
$KE_f = mgh + \frac{1}{2} m v^2$
$KE_f = (2)(10)(1) + \frac{1}{2}(2)(1)^2$
$KE_f = 20 + 1 = 21\, J$
Solution diagram
100
PhysicsMediumMCQJEE Main · 2020
$A$ metallic sphere cools from $50^{\circ}C$ to $40^{\circ}C$ in $300 \, s$. If the atmospheric temperature is $20^{\circ}C$,then the sphere's temperature after the next $5$ minutes will be close to $.....^{\circ}C$.
A
$33$
B
$35$
C
$31$
D
$28$

Solution

(A) According to Newton's Law of Cooling,the rate of cooling is given by $\frac{dT}{dt} = -k(T - T_s)$,where $T_s$ is the surrounding temperature.
For the first interval: $\frac{50 - 40}{300} = k \left( \frac{50 + 40}{2} - 20 \right)$.
$\frac{10}{300} = k(45 - 20) \implies \frac{1}{30} = 25k \implies k = \frac{1}{750}$.
For the next $5$ minutes $(300 \, s)$,let the final temperature be $T$. Then: $\frac{40 - T}{300} = k \left( \frac{40 + T}{2} - 20 \right)$.
Substituting $k = \frac{1}{750}$: $\frac{40 - T}{300} = \frac{1}{750} \left( \frac{40 + T - 40}{2} \right)$.
$\frac{40 - T}{300} = \frac{T}{1500}$.
$5(40 - T) = T \implies 200 - 5T = T \implies 6T = 200$.
$T = \frac{200}{6} \approx 33.33^{\circ}C$. The closest integer value is $33^{\circ}C$.
101
PhysicsMediumMCQJEE Main · 2020
Three charged particles $A, B$ and $C$ with charges $-4q, 2q$ and $-2q$ are present on the circumference of a circle of radius $d$. The charged particles $A, C$ and the centre $O$ of the circle form an equilateral triangle as shown in the figure. The electric field at $O$ along the $x$-direction is
Question diagram
A
$\frac{2 \sqrt{3} q}{\pi \varepsilon_{0} d^{2}}$
B
$\frac{\sqrt{3} q}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0} d^{2}}$
C
$\frac{3 \sqrt{3} q}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0} d^{2}}$
D
$\frac{\sqrt{3} q}{\pi \varepsilon_{0} d^{2}}$

Solution

(D) The electric field at the centre $O$ due to a charge $q'$ at distance $d$ is $E = \frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{q'}{d^2}$.
Let the angles of $A, B, C$ with the positive $x$-axis be $\theta_A = 30^{\circ}$,$\theta_B = 150^{\circ}$,and $\theta_C = -30^{\circ}$.
The electric field components along the $x$-axis are:
$E_{Ax} = \frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{|-4q|}{d^2} \cos(180^{\circ} + 30^{\circ}) = \frac{4q}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0} d^2} (-\cos 30^{\circ}) = -\frac{4q \sqrt{3}}{8 \pi \varepsilon_{0} d^2} = -\frac{\sqrt{3} q}{2 \pi \varepsilon_{0} d^2}$.
$E_{Bx} = \frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{2q}{d^2} \cos(150^{\circ}) = \frac{2q}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0} d^2} (-\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}) = -\frac{\sqrt{3} q}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0} d^2}$.
$E_{Cx} = \frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{|-2q|}{d^2} \cos(180^{\circ} - 30^{\circ}) = \frac{2q}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0} d^2} (-\cos 30^{\circ}) = -\frac{\sqrt{3} q}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0} d^2}$.
The total electric field along the $x$-direction is $E_x = E_{Ax} + E_{Bx} + E_{Cx} = -\frac{\sqrt{3} q}{2 \pi \varepsilon_{0} d^2} - \frac{\sqrt{3} q}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0} d^2} - \frac{\sqrt{3} q}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0} d^2} = -\frac{\sqrt{3} q}{\pi \varepsilon_{0} d^2}$.
The magnitude is $\frac{\sqrt{3} q}{\pi \varepsilon_{0} d^2}$.
102
PhysicsMediumMCQJEE Main · 2020
At time $t=0$, a magnetic field of $1000 \; \text{Gauss}$ is passing perpendicularly through the area defined by the closed loop shown in the figure. If the magnetic field reduces linearly to $500 \; \text{Gauss}$ in the next $5 \; \text{s}$, then the induced $EMF$ in the loop is ........ $\mu \text{V}$.
Question diagram
A
$36$
B
$48$
C
$56$
D
$28$

Solution

(C) The area of the loop can be calculated by subtracting the area of the two triangular cutouts from the area of the rectangle.
The total area $A = (16 \; \text{cm} \times 4 \; \text{cm}) - 2 \times (\frac{1}{2} \times 2 \; \text{cm} \times 4 \; \text{cm}) = 64 \; \text{cm}^2 - 8 \; \text{cm}^2 = 56 \; \text{cm}^2 = 56 \times 10^{-4} \; \text{m}^2$.
The rate of change of the magnetic field is $\frac{dB}{dt} = \frac{B_f - B_i}{\Delta t} = \frac{500 - 1000}{5} \; \text{Gauss/s} = -100 \; \text{Gauss/s} = -100 \times 10^{-4} \; \text{T/s}$.
The magnitude of the induced $EMF$ is given by $\varepsilon = |\frac{d\Phi}{dt}| = |A \frac{dB}{dt}|$.
$\varepsilon = (56 \times 10^{-4} \; \text{m}^2) \times (100 \times 10^{-4} \; \text{T/s}) = 5600 \times 10^{-8} \; \text{V} = 56 \times 10^{-6} \; \text{V} = 56 \; \mu \text{V}$.
Solution diagram
103
PhysicsMediumMCQJEE Main · 2020
Effective capacitance of parallel combination of two capacitors $C_{1}$ and $C_{2}$ is $10\; \mu F$. When these capacitors are individually connected to a voltage source of $1\; V,$ the energy stored in the capacitor $C_{2}$ is $4$ times that of $C_{1}$. If these capacitors are connected in series,their effective capacitance will be (in $; \mu F$)
A
$3.2$
B
$8.4$
C
$1.6$
D
$4.2$

Solution

(C) For parallel combination,the effective capacitance is $C_{p} = C_{1} + C_{2} = 10\; \mu F$.
Energy stored in a capacitor is given by $U = \frac{1}{2}CV^{2}$.
Given that when connected to the same voltage $V$,$U_{2} = 4U_{1}$.
Substituting the formula,$\frac{1}{2}C_{2}V^{2} = 4 \times \frac{1}{2}C_{1}V^{2}$,which simplifies to $C_{2} = 4C_{1}$.
Substituting $C_{2} = 4C_{1}$ into the parallel equation: $C_{1} + 4C_{1} = 10\; \mu F \implies 5C_{1} = 10\; \mu F \implies C_{1} = 2\; \mu F$.
Then,$C_{2} = 4 \times 2 = 8\; \mu F$.
For series combination,the effective capacitance $C_{s}$ is given by $\frac{1}{C_{s}} = \frac{1}{C_{1}} + \frac{1}{C_{2}} = \frac{C_{1} + C_{2}}{C_{1}C_{2}}$.
$C_{s} = \frac{C_{1}C_{2}}{C_{1} + C_{2}} = \frac{2 \times 8}{2 + 8} = \frac{16}{10} = 1.6\; \mu F$.
104
PhysicsMediumMCQJEE Main · 2020
Four resistances of $15\, \Omega, 12\, \Omega, 4\, \Omega$ and $10\, \Omega$ are connected in cyclic order to form a Wheatstone bridge network. The resistance that is to be connected in parallel with the resistance of $10\, \Omega$ to balance the network is ................. $\Omega$.
A
$13$
B
$10$
C
$7$
D
$17$

Solution

(B) Let the resistance to be connected in parallel with the $10\, \Omega$ resistor be $R_p$.
For a balanced Wheatstone bridge, the ratio of resistances in adjacent arms must be equal: $\frac{P}{Q} = \frac{R}{S}$.
Here, the resistances are $15\, \Omega, 12\, \Omega, 4\, \Omega$ and the effective resistance of $10\, \Omega$ in parallel with $R_p$, which is $R_{eff} = \frac{10 R_p}{10 + R_p}$.
Setting the bridge balance condition: $15 \times 4 = 12 \times R_{eff}$.
$60 = 12 \times \frac{10 R_p}{10 + R_p}$.
$5 = \frac{10 R_p}{10 + R_p}$.
$5(10 + R_p) = 10 R_p$.
$50 + 5 R_p = 10 R_p$.
$5 R_p = 50$.
$R_p = 10\, \Omega$.
Solution diagram
105
PhysicsMediumMCQJEE Main · 2020
$A$ point object in air is in front of the curved surface of a plano-convex lens. The radius of curvature of the curved surface is $30 \; cm$ and the refractive index of the lens material is $1.5$. Then the focal length of the lens (in $cm$) is:
A
$58$
B
$62$
C
$60$
D
$67$

Solution

(C) The Lens-Maker's formula is given by $\frac{1}{f} = (\mu - 1) \left( \frac{1}{R_1} - \frac{1}{R_2} \right)$.
For a plano-convex lens,the radius of curvature of the curved surface is $R_1 = 30 \; cm$ and the flat surface has an infinite radius of curvature,so $R_2 = \infty$.
The refractive index of the lens material is $\mu = 1.5$.
Substituting these values into the formula:
$\frac{1}{f} = (1.5 - 1) \left( \frac{1}{30} - \frac{1}{\infty} \right)$
$\frac{1}{f} = (0.5) \left( \frac{1}{30} - 0 \right)$
$\frac{1}{f} = \frac{0.5}{30} = \frac{1}{60}$
Therefore,the focal length $f = 60 \; cm$.
106
PhysicsMediumMCQJEE Main · 2020
An electron gun is placed inside a long solenoid of radius $R$ on its axis. The solenoid has $n$ turns per unit length and carries a current $I$. The electron gun shoots an electron along the radius of the solenoid with speed $v$. If the electron does not hit the surface of the solenoid,the maximum possible value of $v$ is (all symbols have their standard meaning):
Question diagram
A
$\frac{e \mu_{0} nIR}{m}$
B
$\frac{e \mu_{0} nIR}{2 m}$
C
$\frac{2 e \mu_{0} nIR}{m}$
D
$\frac{e \mu_{0} nIR}{4 m}$

Solution

(B) The magnetic field inside a long solenoid is $B = \mu_{0} nI$. When an electron is projected radially with speed $v$,it experiences a Lorentz force $F = evB$ perpendicular to its velocity,causing it to move in a circular path of radius $r = \frac{mv}{eB}$.
For the electron not to hit the surface of the solenoid of radius $R$,the diameter of its circular path must be less than or equal to the radius of the solenoid. Thus,$2r \leq R$,which implies $r \leq \frac{R}{2}$.
Substituting $r = \frac{mv}{e(\mu_{0} nI)}$,we get $\frac{mv}{e\mu_{0} nI} \leq \frac{R}{2}$.
Therefore,the maximum speed $v_{\max}$ is $\frac{e \mu_{0} nIR}{2m}$.
Solution diagram
107
PhysicsMediumMCQJEE Main · 2020
$A$ plane electromagnetic wave is propagating along the direction $\frac{\hat{i}+\hat{j}}{\sqrt{2}},$ with its polarization along the direction $\hat{k}$. The correct form of the magnetic field of the wave would be (here $B_{0}$ is an appropriate constant)
A
$B_{0} \frac{\hat{i}-\hat{j}}{\sqrt{2}} \cos \left(\omega t - k \frac{\hat{i}+\hat{j}}{\sqrt{2}} \cdot \vec{r}\right)$
B
$B_{0} \frac{\hat{i}+\hat{j}}{\sqrt{2}} \cos \left(\omega t - k \frac{\hat{i}+\hat{j}}{\sqrt{2}} \cdot \vec{r}\right)$
C
$B_{0} \hat{k} \cos \left(\omega t - k \frac{\hat{i}+\hat{j}}{\sqrt{2}} \cdot \vec{r}\right)$
D
$B_{0} \frac{\hat{j}-\hat{i}}{\sqrt{2}} \cos \left(\omega t + k \frac{\hat{i}+\hat{j}}{\sqrt{2}} \cdot \vec{r}\right)$

Solution

(A) The direction of propagation is given by $\hat{n} = \frac{\hat{i}+\hat{j}}{\sqrt{2}}$.
The electric field polarization is given by $\hat{E} = \hat{k}$.
In an electromagnetic wave,the direction of propagation $\hat{n}$ is given by the cross product of the electric field direction $\hat{E}$ and the magnetic field direction $\hat{B}$,i.e.,$\hat{n} = \hat{E} \times \hat{B}$.
Substituting the known values: $\frac{\hat{i}+\hat{j}}{\sqrt{2}} = \hat{k} \times \hat{B}$.
We know that $\hat{k} \times \hat{i} = \hat{j}$ and $\hat{k} \times \hat{j} = -\hat{i}$.
Therefore,$\hat{k} \times \left( \frac{\hat{i}-\hat{j}}{\sqrt{2}} \right) = \frac{\hat{j} - (-\hat{i})}{\sqrt{2}} = \frac{\hat{i}+\hat{j}}{\sqrt{2}}$.
Thus,the direction of the magnetic field is $\hat{B} = \frac{\hat{i}-\hat{j}}{\sqrt{2}}$.
Hence,the magnetic field vector is $\vec{B} = B_{0} \frac{\hat{i}-\hat{j}}{\sqrt{2}} \cos \left(\omega t - \vec{k} \cdot \vec{r}\right)$.
108
PhysicsMediumMCQJEE Main · 2020
The current $i$ in the network is: (in $A$)
Question diagram
A
$0$
B
$0.6$
C
$0.3$
D
$0.2$

Solution

(C) In the given circuit,the two diodes are connected in such a way that the top diode is forward-biased and the bottom diode is reverse-biased.
Therefore,the bottom branch containing the reverse-biased diode acts as an open circuit.
The circuit simplifies to a series combination of the $5 \ \Omega$ resistor (external),the $5 \ \Omega$ resistor (top middle),the $10 \ \Omega$ resistor (top right),and the $10 \ \Omega$ resistor (top left).
The total resistance $R_{eq} = 5 \ \Omega + 5 \ \Omega + 10 \ \Omega + 10 \ \Omega = 30 \ \Omega$.
The current $i$ is given by $i = \frac{V}{R_{eq}} = \frac{9 \ V}{30 \ \Omega} = 0.3 \ A$.
Solution diagram
109
PhysicsMediumMCQJEE Main · 2020
$A$ small circular loop of conducting wire has radius $a$ and carries current $I$. It is placed in a uniform magnetic field $B$ perpendicular to its plane such that when rotated slightly about its diameter and released,it starts performing simple harmonic motion of time period $T$. If the mass of the loop is $m$,then find the expression for $T$.
A
$T=\sqrt{\frac{\pi m}{2 IB}}$
B
$T=\sqrt{\frac{2 \pi m}{IB}}$
C
$T=\sqrt{\frac{\pi m}{IB}}$
D
$T=\sqrt{\frac{2 m}{IB}}$

Solution

(B) The magnetic torque on the loop is given by $\vec{\tau} = \vec{M} \times \vec{B}$.
For a small angular displacement $\theta$,the magnitude of the torque is $\tau = MB \sin \theta \approx MB \theta$.
The restoring torque is $\tau = -MB \theta$.
Using Newton's second law for rotation,$\tau = I_{moment} \alpha$,where $I_{moment}$ is the moment of inertia of the circular loop about its diameter,$I_{moment} = \frac{ma^2}{2}$.
Thus,$\frac{ma^2}{2} \alpha = - (I \pi a^2) B \theta$.
$\alpha = - \frac{2 I \pi B}{m} \theta$.
Comparing this with the $SHM$ equation $\alpha = - \omega^2 \theta$,we get $\omega^2 = \frac{2 I \pi B}{m}$.
Therefore,$\omega = \sqrt{\frac{2 I \pi B}{m}}$.
The time period $T$ is given by $T = \frac{2 \pi}{\omega} = 2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{m}{2 I \pi B}} = \sqrt{\frac{4 \pi^2 m}{2 I \pi B}} = \sqrt{\frac{2 \pi m}{IB}}$.
Solution diagram
110
PhysicsDifficultMCQJEE Main · 2020
In an $LC$ circuit,the inductance $L = 40 \; mH$ and capacitance $C = 100 \; \mu F$. If a voltage $V(t) = 10 \sin (314 t)$ is applied to the circuit,the current in the circuit is given by:
A
$0.52 \cos 314 t$
B
$0.52 \sin 314 t$
C
$10 \cos 314 t$
D
$5.2 \cos 314 t$

Solution

(A) Given: $L = 40 \times 10^{-3} \; H$,$C = 100 \times 10^{-6} \; F$,$V(t) = 10 \sin (314 t)$.
Here,$\omega = 314 \; rad/s$.
Inductive reactance $X_{L} = \omega L = 314 \times 40 \times 10^{-3} = 12.56 \; \Omega$.
Capacitive reactance $X_{C} = \frac{1}{\omega C} = \frac{1}{314 \times 100 \times 10^{-6}} = \frac{10^{4}}{314} \approx 31.85 \; \Omega$.
Since $X_{C} > X_{L}$,the circuit is capacitive.
The net reactance $X = X_{C} - X_{L} = 31.85 - 12.56 = 19.29 \; \Omega$.
The peak current $I_{m} = \frac{V_{m}}{X} = \frac{10}{19.29} \approx 0.52 \; A$.
In a capacitive circuit,the current leads the voltage by $\frac{\pi}{2}$.
Thus,$I(t) = I_{m} \sin (\omega t + \frac{\pi}{2}) = 0.52 \sin (314 t + \frac{\pi}{2}) = 0.52 \cos (314 t)$.
Solution diagram
111
PhysicsDifficultMCQJEE Main · 2020
There is a small source of light at some depth below the surface of water (refractive index $= 4/3$) in a tank of large cross-sectional surface area. Neglecting any reflection from the bottom and absorption by water,the percentage of light that emerges out of the surface is (nearly) ..........$\%$. [Use the fact that the solid angle subtended by a cone of semi-vertical angle $\theta$ is $\Omega = 2\pi(1 - \cos\theta)$]
A
$17$
B
$21$
C
$34$
D
$50$

Solution

(A) The light source emits light in all directions,covering a total solid angle of $4\pi$ steradians.
Light emerges from the water surface only if the angle of incidence is less than or equal to the critical angle $\theta_c$.
Using Snell's law at the critical angle: $\mu \sin\theta_c = 1 \sin 90^{\circ}$,where $\mu = 4/3$.
$\sin\theta_c = 1 / (4/3) = 3/4$.
Then,$\cos\theta_c = \sqrt{1 - \sin^2\theta_c} = \sqrt{1 - 9/16} = \sqrt{7}/4$.
The solid angle $\Omega$ subtended by the cone of light that emerges is $\Omega = 2\pi(1 - \cos\theta_c)$.
Substituting the value of $\cos\theta_c$: $\Omega = 2\pi(1 - \sqrt{7}/4) = 2\pi(1 - 2.646/4) = 2\pi(1 - 0.6615) = 2\pi(0.3385) = 0.677\pi$.
The fraction of light emerging is $\frac{\Omega}{4\pi} = \frac{0.677\pi}{4\pi} \approx 0.169$.
Converting to percentage: $0.169 \times 100 \approx 17\%$.
Solution diagram
112
PhysicsDifficultMCQJEE Main · 2020
The energy required to ionise a hydrogen-like ion in its ground state is $9$ Rydbergs. What is the wavelength of the radiation emitted when the electron in this ion jumps from the second excited state to the ground state? ........$nm$
A
$35.8$
B
$24.2$
C
$8.6$
D
$11.4$

Solution

(D) The ionization energy of a hydrogen-like ion in the ground state is given by $E = 13.6 Z^2 \text{ eV}$.
Given that the ionization energy is $9$ Rydbergs,and $1 \text{ Rydberg} = 13.6 \text{ eV}$,we have $13.6 Z^2 = 9 \times 13.6$.
Thus,$Z^2 = 9$,which implies $Z = 3$.
The energy of the emitted photon when the electron jumps from the second excited state $(n_2 = 3)$ to the ground state $(n_1 = 1)$ is given by the Rydberg formula:
$\frac{1}{\lambda} = R Z^2 \left( \frac{1}{n_1^2} - \frac{1}{n_2^2} \right)$.
Substituting the values: $\frac{1}{\lambda} = R \times 3^2 \times \left( \frac{1}{1^2} - \frac{1}{3^2} \right) = R \times 9 \times \left( 1 - \frac{1}{9} \right) = R \times 9 \times \frac{8}{9} = 8R$.
Since $R \approx 1.097 \times 10^7 \text{ m}^{-1}$,we have $\frac{1}{\lambda} = 8 \times 1.097 \times 10^7 \text{ m}^{-1} = 8.776 \times 10^7 \text{ m}^{-1}$.
$\lambda = \frac{1}{8.776 \times 10^7} \text{ m} \approx 1.14 \times 10^{-8} \text{ m} = 11.4 \text{ nm}$.
113
PhysicsMediumMCQJEE Main · 2020
Two identical capacitors $A$ and $B$,charged to the same potential $V$,are connected in two different circuits as shown below at time $t=0$. If the charge on capacitors $A$ and $B$ at time $t=CR$ is $Q_{A}$ and $Q_{B}$ respectively,then (Here $e$ is the base of natural logarithm):
Question diagram
A
$Q_{A}=VC, Q_{B}=\frac{VC}{e}$
B
$Q_{A}=\frac{CV}{2}, Q_{B}=\frac{VC}{e}$
C
$Q_{A}=VC, Q_{B}=CV$
D
$Q_{A}=\frac{VC}{e}, Q_{B}=\frac{CV}{2}$

Solution

(A) In circuit $A$,the diode is reverse-biased. Therefore,no current flows through the circuit. The capacitor $A$ remains fully charged. Thus,$Q_{A} = CV$.
In circuit $B$,the diode is forward-biased. The capacitor discharges through the resistor $R$. The charge on the capacitor at any time $t$ is given by $q(t) = Q_{0} e^{-\frac{t}{RC}}$,where $Q_{0} = CV$.
At time $t = CR$,the charge $Q_{B}$ is:
$Q_{B} = CV e^{-\frac{CR}{RC}} = CV e^{-1} = \frac{CV}{e}$.
Therefore,$Q_{A} = CV$ and $Q_{B} = \frac{CV}{e}$.
114
PhysicsDifficultMCQJEE Main · 2020
An electron of mass $m$ and magnitude of charge $|e|$ initially at rest gets accelerated by a constant electric field $E$. The rate of change of de-Broglie wavelength of this electron at time $t$ ignoring relativistic effects is:
A
$\frac{-h}{|e| Et^{2}}$
B
$\frac{|e| Et}{h}$
C
$-\frac{h}{|e| E \sqrt{t}}$
D
$-\frac{h}{|e| Et}$

Solution

(A) The acceleration of the electron is $a = \frac{|e|E}{m}$.
Since the electron starts from rest $(u = 0)$,its velocity at time $t$ is $v = at = \frac{|e|E}{m}t$.
The de-Broglie wavelength is given by $\lambda = \frac{h}{mv} = \frac{h}{m(\frac{|e|E}{m}t)} = \frac{h}{|e|Et}$.
To find the rate of change of wavelength,we differentiate $\lambda$ with respect to $t$:
$\frac{d\lambda}{dt} = \frac{d}{dt} (\frac{h}{|e|Et}) = \frac{h}{|e|E} \cdot \frac{d}{dt}(t^{-1}) = \frac{h}{|e|E} (-t^{-2}) = -\frac{h}{|e|Et^2}$.
115
PhysicsDifficultMCQJEE Main · 2020
In a meter bridge experiment,$S$ is a standard resistance and $R$ is a resistance wire. It is found that the balancing length is $l = 25 \; cm$. If $R$ is replaced by a wire of half the length and half the diameter of $R$ but of the same material,then the new balancing length $l^{\prime}$ (in $cm$) will be:
Question diagram
A
$36$
B
$37$
C
$33$
D
$40$

Solution

(D) For a meter bridge,the balancing condition is given by $\frac{R}{S} = \frac{l}{100 - l}$.
Given $l = 25 \; cm$,we have $\frac{R}{S} = \frac{25}{100 - 25} = \frac{25}{75} = \frac{1}{3}$.
Thus,$S = 3R$.
The resistance of a wire is given by $R = \rho \frac{l}{A} = \rho \frac{l}{\pi (d/2)^2} = \frac{4 \rho l}{\pi d^2}$.
When the length is halved $(l^{\prime} = l/2)$ and the diameter is halved $(d^{\prime} = d/2)$,the new resistance $R^{\prime}$ becomes:
$R^{\prime} = \frac{4 \rho (l/2)}{\pi (d/2)^2} = \frac{4 \rho l / 2}{\pi d^2 / 4} = 2 \left( \frac{4 \rho l}{\pi d^2} \right) = 2R$.
Now,for the new balancing length $l^{\prime}$,the condition is $\frac{R^{\prime}}{S} = \frac{l^{\prime}}{100 - l^{\prime}}$.
Substituting $R^{\prime} = 2R$ and $S = 3R$:
$\frac{2R}{3R} = \frac{l^{\prime}}{100 - l^{\prime}}$
$\frac{2}{3} = \frac{l^{\prime}}{100 - l^{\prime}}$
$200 - 2l^{\prime} = 3l^{\prime}$
$5l^{\prime} = 200$
$l^{\prime} = 40 \; cm$.
116
PhysicsMediumMCQJEE Main · 2020
The circuit shown below is working as an $8\; V\; dc$ regulated voltage source. When $12 \; V$ is used as input, the power dissipated (in $mW$) in each diode is (considering both zener diodes are identical).
Question diagram
A
$20$
B
$8$
C
$24$
D
$40$

Solution

(D) The total resistance in the circuit is $R = 200 \; \Omega + 200 \; \Omega = 400 \; \Omega$.
The voltage drop across the resistors is $V_R = V_{in} - V_{out} = 12 \; V - 8 \; V = 4 \; V$.
The current flowing through the circuit is $I = \frac{V_R}{R} = \frac{4 \; V}{400 \; \Omega} = 0.01 \; A = 10 \; mA$.
Since the two identical Zener diodes are connected in series, the voltage across each diode is $V_d = \frac{8 \; V}{2} = 4 \; V$.
The power dissipated in each diode is $P = V_d \times I = 4 \; V \times 10 \; mA = 40 \; mW$.
Solution diagram
117
PhysicsMediumMCQJEE Main · 2020
In a Young's double slit experiment,$15$ fringes are observed on a small portion of the screen when light of wavelength $500 \; nm$ is used. Ten fringes are observed on the same section of the screen when another light source of wavelength $\lambda$ is used. Then the value of $\lambda$ is (in $nm$):
A
$750$
B
$600$
C
$625$
D
$700$

Solution

(A) The width of the screen portion is constant for both cases.
Let the width of the screen portion be $L$.
The fringe width $\beta$ is given by $\beta = \frac{\lambda D}{d}$.
The number of fringes $n$ observed in a length $L$ is given by $L = n \times \beta = n \times \frac{\lambda D}{d}$.
For the first case: $L = 15 \times \frac{500 \; nm \times D}{d}$.
For the second case: $L = 10 \times \frac{\lambda \times D}{d}$.
Equating the two expressions for $L$:
$15 \times 500 = 10 \times \lambda$.
$\lambda = \frac{15 \times 500}{10} = 15 \times 50 = 750 \; nm$.
118
PhysicsMediumMCQJEE Main · 2020
An electric field $\overrightarrow{E} = 4x \hat{i} - (y^2 + 1) \hat{j} \text{ N/C}$ passes through the box shown in the figure. The flux of the electric field through surfaces $ABCD$ and $BCGF$ are marked as $\phi_I$ and $\phi_{II}$ respectively. The difference $(\phi_I - \phi_{II})$ is (in $\text{Nm}^2/C$):
Question diagram
A
$48$
B
$52$
C
$56$
D
$-48$

Solution

(D) The electric field is given by $\overrightarrow{E} = 4x \hat{i} - (y^2 + 1) \hat{j}$.
Surface $ABCD$ lies in the $xy$-plane at $z = 2$. The area vector for this surface is $\overrightarrow{S}_I = S \hat{k}$. Since $\overrightarrow{E} \cdot \hat{k} = 0$,the flux $\phi_I = 0$.
Surface $BCGF$ lies in the $yz$-plane at $x = 3$. The area vector for this surface is $\overrightarrow{S}_{II} = 4 \hat{i}$ (area = $2 \times 2 = 4$).
At $x = 3$,the electric field is $\overrightarrow{E} = 4(3) \hat{i} - (y^2 + 1) \hat{j} = 12 \hat{i} - (y^2 + 1) \hat{j}$.
The flux $\phi_{II} = \int \overrightarrow{E} \cdot d\overrightarrow{S} = \int_{0}^{2} \int_{0}^{2} (12 \hat{i} - (y^2 + 1) \hat{j}) \cdot (dy dz \hat{i}) = \int_{0}^{2} \int_{0}^{2} 12 \, dy dz = 12 \times 4 = 48 \text{ Nm}^2/C$.
Thus,$\phi_I - \phi_{II} = 0 - 48 = -48 \text{ Nm}^2/C$.
119
PhysicsDifficultMCQJEE Main · 2020
The electric fields of two plane electromagnetic waves in vacuum are given by $\overrightarrow{E}_{1}=E_{0} \hat{j} \cos (\omega t-kx)$ and $\overrightarrow{E}_{2}=E_{0} \hat{k} \cos (\omega t-ky)$. At $t=0$,a particle of charge $q$ is at the origin with a velocity $\overrightarrow{v}=0.8 c \hat{j}$ ($c$ is the speed of light in vacuum). The instantaneous force experienced by the particle is:
A
$E_{0} q(-0.8 \hat{i}+\hat{j}+\hat{k})$
B
$E_{0} q(0.8 \hat{i}-\hat{j}+0.4 \hat{k})$
C
$E_{0} q(0.8 \hat{i}+\hat{j}+0.2 \hat{k})$
D
$E_{0} q(0.4 \hat{i}-3 \hat{j}+0.8 \hat{k})$

Solution

(C) The electric fields are $\overrightarrow{E}_{1}=E_{0} \hat{j} \cos (\omega t-kx)$ and $\overrightarrow{E}_{2}=E_{0} \hat{k} \cos (\omega t-ky)$.
At $t=0$ and origin $(0,0,0)$,$\overrightarrow{E}_{1} = E_{0} \hat{j}$ and $\overrightarrow{E}_{2} = E_{0} \hat{k}$.
The corresponding magnetic fields are given by $\overrightarrow{B} = \frac{1}{c} (\hat{n} \times \overrightarrow{E})$,where $\hat{n}$ is the direction of propagation.
For $\overrightarrow{E}_{1}$,$\hat{n} = \hat{i}$,so $\overrightarrow{B}_{1} = \frac{1}{c} (\hat{i} \times E_{0} \hat{j}) = \frac{E_{0}}{c} \hat{k}$.
For $\overrightarrow{E}_{2}$,$\hat{n} = \hat{j}$,so $\overrightarrow{B}_{2} = \frac{1}{c} (\hat{j} \times E_{0} \hat{k}) = \frac{E_{0}}{c} \hat{i}$.
The Lorentz force is $\overrightarrow{F} = q(\overrightarrow{E}_{1} + \overrightarrow{E}_{2}) + q(\overrightarrow{v} \times (\overrightarrow{B}_{1} + \overrightarrow{B}_{2}))$.
Substituting values: $\overrightarrow{F} = q(E_{0} \hat{j} + E_{0} \hat{k}) + q(0.8 c \hat{j} \times (\frac{E_{0}}{c} \hat{k} + \frac{E_{0}}{c} \hat{i}))$.
$\overrightarrow{F} = q E_{0} \hat{j} + q E_{0} \hat{k} + 0.8 q E_{0} (\hat{j} \times \hat{k}) + 0.8 q E_{0} (\hat{j} \times \hat{i})$.
Using cross products $\hat{j} \times \hat{k} = \hat{i}$ and $\hat{j} \times \hat{i} = -\hat{k}$:
$\overrightarrow{F} = q E_{0} \hat{j} + q E_{0} \hat{k} + 0.8 q E_{0} \hat{i} - 0.8 q E_{0} \hat{k} = q E_{0} (0.8 \hat{i} + \hat{j} + 0.2 \hat{k})$.
120
PhysicsDifficultMCQJEE Main · 2020
Consider a sphere of radius $R$ which carries a uniform charge density $\rho$. If a sphere of radius $\frac{R}{2}$ is carved out of it,as shown,the ratio $\frac{|\overrightarrow{E}_{A}|}{|\overrightarrow{E}_{B}|}$ of the magnitude of the electric field $\overrightarrow{E}_{A}$ and $\overrightarrow{E}_{B}$ respectively,at points $A$ and $B$ due to the remaining portion is
Question diagram
A
$\frac{18}{54}$
B
$\frac{21}{34}$
C
$\frac{17}{54}$
D
$\frac{18}{34}$

Solution

(D) To find the electric field due to the remaining portion,we use the principle of superposition by considering the sphere as a combination of a full sphere of charge density $+\rho$ and a smaller sphere of charge density $-\rho$.
At point $A$ (which is at the center of the carved-out sphere and at a distance $R/2$ from the center of the large sphere):
$|\overrightarrow{E}_{A}| = |\overrightarrow{E}_{large} + \overrightarrow{E}_{small}| = |\frac{\rho (R/2)}{3\epsilon_0} + 0| = \frac{\rho R}{6\epsilon_0}$.
At point $B$ (which is at the bottom of the large sphere,distance $R$ from its center and $3R/2$ from the center of the carved-out sphere):
$|\overrightarrow{E}_{B}| = |\frac{\rho R}{3\epsilon_0} - \frac{\rho (R/2)^3}{3\epsilon_0 (3R/2)^2}| = \frac{\rho R}{3\epsilon_0} - \frac{\rho R^3/8}{3\epsilon_0 (9R^2/4)} = \frac{\rho R}{3\epsilon_0} (1 - \frac{1}{18}) = \frac{\rho R}{3\epsilon_0} (\frac{17}{18}) = \frac{17\rho R}{54\epsilon_0}$.
Taking the ratio:
$\frac{|\overrightarrow{E}_{A}|}{|\overrightarrow{E}_{B}|} = \frac{\rho R / 6\epsilon_0}{17\rho R / 54\epsilon_0} = \frac{1}{6} \times \frac{54}{17} = \frac{9}{17} = \frac{18}{34}$.
121
PhysicsDifficultMCQJEE Main · 2020
$A$ long,straight wire of radius $a$ carries a current distributed uniformly over its cross-section. The ratio of the magnetic fields due to the wire at distance $\frac{a}{3}$ and $2a$ respectively from the axis of the wire is
A
$\frac{2}{3}$
B
$\frac{3}{2}$
C
$\frac{1}{2}$
D
$2$

Solution

(A) Let the total current be $I$ and current density be $J = \frac{I}{\pi a^2}$.
For a point inside the wire at distance $r < a$,using Ampere's law: $\oint \vec{B} \cdot d\vec{\ell} = \mu_0 I_{enclosed}$.
$B(2\pi r) = \mu_0 (J \cdot \pi r^2) \Rightarrow B = \frac{\mu_0 J r}{2}$.
At $r = \frac{a}{3}$,$B_A = \frac{\mu_0 J (a/3)}{2} = \frac{\mu_0 J a}{6}$.
For a point outside the wire at distance $r > a$,the wire acts as a long straight wire carrying current $I$ at its axis.
$B(2\pi r) = \mu_0 I = \mu_0 (J \pi a^2) \Rightarrow B = \frac{\mu_0 J a^2}{2r}$.
At $r = 2a$,$B_B = \frac{\mu_0 J a^2}{2(2a)} = \frac{\mu_0 J a}{4}$.
The ratio is $\frac{B_A}{B_B} = \frac{\mu_0 J a / 6}{\mu_0 J a / 4} = \frac{4}{6} = \frac{2}{3}$.
Solution diagram
122
PhysicsMediumMCQJEE Main · 2020
$A$ particle moving with kinetic energy $E$ has de Broglie wavelength $\lambda$. If energy $\Delta E$ is added to its energy,the wavelength becomes $\frac{\lambda}{2}$. The value of $\Delta E$ is:
A
$2E$
B
$E$
C
$3E$
D
$4E$

Solution

(C) The de Broglie wavelength $\lambda$ of a particle with kinetic energy $E$ is given by $\lambda = \frac{h}{\sqrt{2mE}}$.
When the energy is increased by $\Delta E$,the new kinetic energy becomes $E' = E + \Delta E$,and the new wavelength is $\lambda' = \frac{\lambda}{2}$.
Using the formula for the new wavelength: $\lambda' = \frac{h}{\sqrt{2m(E + \Delta E)}}$.
Since $\lambda' = \frac{\lambda}{2}$,we have $\frac{h}{\sqrt{2m(E + \Delta E)}} = \frac{1}{2} \cdot \frac{h}{\sqrt{2mE}}$.
Squaring both sides: $\frac{1}{2m(E + \Delta E)} = \frac{1}{4} \cdot \frac{1}{2mE}$.
Simplifying the equation: $\frac{1}{E + \Delta E} = \frac{1}{4E}$.
Therefore,$4E = E + \Delta E$,which gives $\Delta E = 3E$.
123
PhysicsMediumMCQJEE Main · 2020
$A$ vessel of depth $2h$ is half-filled with a liquid of refractive index $2\sqrt{2}$ and the upper half with another liquid of refractive index $\sqrt{2}$. The liquids are immiscible. The apparent depth of the inner surface of the bottom of the vessel will be:
A
$\frac{h}{\sqrt{2}}$
B
$\frac{3}{4} h \sqrt{2}$
C
$\frac{h}{2(\sqrt{2}+1)}$
D
$\frac{h}{3 \sqrt{2}}$

Solution

(B) The apparent depth $(d_{app})$ of an object seen through multiple layers of liquids is given by the sum of the apparent depths of each layer: $d_{app} = \sum \frac{h_i}{\mu_i}$.
Here, the total depth is $2h$. The lower half has depth $h$ and refractive index $\mu_1 = 2\sqrt{2}$. The upper half has depth $h$ and refractive index $\mu_2 = \sqrt{2}$.
The apparent depth of the bottom surface as seen from the top is:
$d_{app} = \frac{h_1}{\mu_1} + \frac{h_2}{\mu_2}$
$d_{app} = \frac{h}{2\sqrt{2}} + \frac{h}{\sqrt{2}}$
$d_{app} = \frac{h + 2h}{2\sqrt{2}} = \frac{3h}{2\sqrt{2}}$
Rationalizing the denominator:
$d_{app} = \frac{3h \times \sqrt{2}}{2\sqrt{2} \times \sqrt{2}} = \frac{3\sqrt{2}h}{4} = \frac{3}{4}h\sqrt{2}$.
124
PhysicsDifficultMCQJEE Main · 2020
Radiation $p$ with wavelength $6561 \; \mathring{A}$ falls on a metal surface to produce photoelectrons. The electrons are made to enter a uniform magnetic field of $3 \times 10^{-4} \; T$. If the radius of the largest circular path followed by the electrons is $10 \; mm$,the work function of the metal is close to ............... $eV$.
A
$1.8$
B
$0.8$
C
$1.1$
D
$1.6$

Solution

(A) Let the work function be $\phi$.
According to Einstein's photoelectric equation,the maximum kinetic energy $KE_{\max}$ is given by:
$KE_{\max} = \frac{hc}{\lambda} - \phi$.
When an electron with charge $q$ and mass $m$ enters a magnetic field $B$ perpendicular to its velocity,it follows a circular path of radius $R = \frac{\sqrt{2m KE_{\max}}}{qB}$.
Squaring both sides,we get $R^2 = \frac{2m KE_{\max}}{q^2 B^2}$,which implies $KE_{\max} = \frac{R^2 q^2 B^2}{2m}$.
Substituting the values: $h = 6.63 \times 10^{-34} \; J \cdot s$,$c = 3 \times 10^8 \; m/s$,$\lambda = 6561 \times 10^{-10} \; m$,$R = 10 \times 10^{-3} \; m$,$q = 1.6 \times 10^{-19} \; C$,$m = 9.1 \times 10^{-31} \; kg$,$B = 3 \times 10^{-4} \; T$.
Energy of incident photon $E = \frac{hc}{\lambda} = \frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34} \times 3 \times 10^8}{6561 \times 10^{-10}} \approx 3.03 \times 10^{-19} \; J = 1.89 \; eV$.
Kinetic energy $KE_{\max} = \frac{(10^{-2})^2 \times (1.6 \times 10^{-19})^2 \times (3 \times 10^{-4})^2}{2 \times 9.1 \times 10^{-31}} \approx 1.26 \times 10^{-20} \; J = 0.079 \; eV$.
Thus,$\phi = E - KE_{\max} = 1.89 \; eV - 0.079 \; eV \approx 1.81 \; eV$.
Wait,re-evaluating the calculation: $E = 1.89 \; eV$. $KE_{\max} = 0.079 \; eV$. $\phi = 1.81 \; eV$.
Given the options,$1.8 \; eV$ is the closest value.
125
PhysicsMediumMCQJEE Main · 2020
The aperture diameter of a telescope is $5\; m$. The separation between the moon and the earth is $4 \times 10^{5} \; km$. With light of wavelength $5500\; \mathring{A}$, the minimum separation between objects on the surface of the moon, so that they are just resolved, is close to......$m$.
A
$20$
B
$600$
C
$60$
D
$200$

Solution

(C) The angular resolution of a telescope is given by the formula $\Delta \theta = \frac{1.22 \lambda}{D}$, where $\lambda$ is the wavelength of light and $D$ is the diameter of the aperture.
Given: $\lambda = 5500 \; \mathring{A} = 5500 \times 10^{-10} \; m$, $D = 5 \; m$, and distance $d = 4 \times 10^{5} \; km = 4 \times 10^{8} \; m$.
The linear separation $x$ between two objects on the moon that can be just resolved is given by $x = d \cdot \Delta \theta$.
Substituting the values:
$x = d \times \frac{1.22 \lambda}{D} = \frac{4 \times 10^{8} \times 1.22 \times 5500 \times 10^{-10}}{5}$.
$x = \frac{4 \times 1.22 \times 5.5 \times 10^{-2}}{5} \times 10^{8} = 0.8 \times 1.22 \times 5.5 \times 10^{-2} \times 10^{8} = 53.68 \; m$.
Rounding this value to the nearest provided option, we get $60 \; m$.
126
PhysicsMediumMCQJEE Main · 2020
In the given circuit diagram,a wire is joining points $B$ and $D$. The current in this wire is ............. $A$.
Question diagram
A
$4$
B
$2$
C
$0.4$
D
$0$

Solution

(B) Let the potential at point $A$ be $V_A = 20 \text{ V}$ and at point $C$ be $V_C = 0 \text{ V}$.
First,find the potentials at $B$ and $D$ using the voltage divider rule or nodal analysis.
The branch $AB$ and $BC$ are in series,and $AD$ and $DC$ are in series.
For the upper branch $ABC$: The total resistance is $1 \Omega + 2 \Omega = 3 \Omega$. The current is $I_1 = 20 \text{ V} / 3 \Omega = 6.67 \text{ A}$. The potential at $B$ is $V_B = V_A - I_1 \times 1 \Omega = 20 - 6.67 = 13.33 \text{ V}$.
For the lower branch $ADC$: The total resistance is $4 \Omega + 3 \Omega = 7 \Omega$. The current is $I_2 = 20 \text{ V} / 7 \Omega = 2.86 \text{ A}$. The potential at $D$ is $V_D = V_A - I_2 \times 4 \Omega = 20 - 11.44 = 8.56 \text{ V}$.
Since $V_B > V_D$,current flows from $B$ to $D$.
Alternatively,using Kirchhoff's Current Law $(KCL)$ at nodes $B$ and $D$ or nodal analysis,we find the current in the wire $BD$ is $2 \text{ A}$ as shown in the provided solution image.
Solution diagram
127
PhysicsDifficultMCQJEE Main · 2020
$A$ charged particle of mass $m$ and charge $q$ moving under the influence of a uniform electric field $E\hat{i}$ and a uniform magnetic field $B\hat{k}$ follows a trajectory from point $P$ to $Q$ as shown in the figure. The velocities at $P$ and $Q$ are respectively $v\hat{i}$ and $-2v\hat{j}$. Which of the following statements $(A, B, C, D)$ are correct? (Trajectory shown is schematic and not to scale)
$(A)$ $E = \frac{3}{4}\left(\frac{mv^{2}}{qa}\right)$
$(B)$ Rate of work done by the electric field at $P$ is $\frac{3}{4}\left(\frac{mv^{3}}{a}\right)$
$(C)$ Rate of work done by both the fields at $Q$ is zero
$(D)$ The difference between the magnitude of angular momentum of the particle at $P$ and $Q$ is $2mav$.
Question diagram
A
$(A), (B), (C), (D)$
B
$(A), (B), (C)$
C
$(B), (C), (D)$
D
$(A), (C), (D)$

Solution

(B) Using the work-energy theorem: $W_{net} = \Delta K$
$qE(2a) = \frac{1}{2}m(2v)^2 - \frac{1}{2}mv^2 = \frac{3}{2}mv^2$
$E = \frac{3mv^2}{4qa}$. Thus,$(A)$ is correct.
Rate of work done by electric field $P_E = \vec{F}_E \cdot \vec{v} = (qE\hat{i}) \cdot (v\hat{i}) = qEv = q\left(\frac{3mv^2}{4qa}\right)v = \frac{3mv^3}{4a}$. Thus,$(B)$ is correct.
At $Q$,velocity is $-2v\hat{j}$. Electric force is $qE\hat{i}$. Since $\vec{F}_E \perp \vec{v}$,power by electric field is $0$. Magnetic force is always perpendicular to velocity,so power by magnetic field is $0$. Thus,$(C)$ is correct.
Angular momentum $L = \vec{r} \times \vec{p}$. At $P$,$\vec{r}_P = a\hat{j}$,$\vec{p}_P = mv\hat{i}$,so $L_P = (a\hat{j}) \times (mv\hat{i}) = -mav\hat{k}$. Magnitude $|L_P| = mav$.
At $Q$,$\vec{r}_Q = 2a\hat{i}$,$\vec{p}_Q = -2mv\hat{j}$,so $L_Q = (2a\hat{i}) \times (-2mv\hat{j}) = -4mav\hat{k}$. Magnitude $|L_Q| = 4mav$.
Difference $= 4mav - mav = 3mav$. Thus,$(D)$ is incorrect.
128
PhysicsMediumMCQJEE Main · 2020
An electric dipole of moment $\overrightarrow{p} = (-\hat{i} - 3\hat{j} + 2\hat{k}) \times 10^{-29} \; C \cdot m$ is at the origin $(0, 0, 0)$. The electric field due to this dipole at $\overrightarrow{r} = \hat{i} + 3\hat{j} + 5\hat{k}$ (note that $\overrightarrow{r} \cdot \overrightarrow{p} = 0$) is parallel to
A
$(-\hat{i} + 3\hat{j} - 2\hat{k})$
B
$(\hat{i} - 3\hat{j} - 2\hat{k})$
C
$(\hat{i} + 3\hat{j} - 2\hat{k})$
D
$(-\hat{i} - 3\hat{j} + 2\hat{k})$

Solution

(C) Given the dipole moment $\overrightarrow{p} = (-\hat{i} - 3\hat{j} + 2\hat{k}) \times 10^{-29} \; C \cdot m$ and position vector $\overrightarrow{r} = \hat{i} + 3\hat{j} + 5\hat{k}$.
Since $\overrightarrow{r} \cdot \overrightarrow{p} = (1)(-1) + (3)(-3) + (5)(2) = -1 - 9 + 10 = 0$,the point lies on the equatorial plane of the dipole.
For a point on the equatorial plane,the electric field $\overrightarrow{E}$ is given by $\overrightarrow{E} = -\frac{1}{4\pi\epsilon_0} \frac{\overrightarrow{p}}{r^3}$.
This implies that the electric field $\overrightarrow{E}$ is antiparallel to the dipole moment $\overrightarrow{p}$.
Therefore,$\overrightarrow{E} \parallel -\overrightarrow{p}$.
Since $\overrightarrow{p} = (-\hat{i} - 3\hat{j} + 2\hat{k}) \times 10^{-29}$,then $-\overrightarrow{p} = (\hat{i} + 3\hat{j} - 2\hat{k}) \times 10^{-29}$.
Thus,the electric field is parallel to $(\hat{i} + 3\hat{j} - 2\hat{k})$.
129
PhysicsMediumMCQJEE Main · 2020
In a fluorescent lamp choke (a small transformer),$100 \; V$ of reverse voltage is produced when the choke current changes uniformly from $0.25 \; A$ to $0 \; A$ in a duration of $0.025 \; ms$. The self-inductance of the choke (in $mH$) is estimated to be:
A
$15$
B
$10$
C
$20$
D
$25$

Solution

(B) The induced electromotive force $(EMF)$ in an inductor is given by the formula: $V = L \left| \frac{di}{dt} \right|$.
Here,the change in current $\Delta i = 0.25 \; A - 0 \; A = 0.25 \; A$.
The time interval $\Delta t = 0.025 \; ms = 0.025 \times 10^{-3} \; s$.
The induced voltage $V = 100 \; V$.
Rearranging the formula to solve for self-inductance $L$: $L = \frac{V}{|\Delta i / \Delta t|} = \frac{V \cdot \Delta t}{\Delta i}$.
Substituting the values: $L = \frac{100 \times 0.025 \times 10^{-3}}{0.25}$.
$L = \frac{100 \times 0.025}{0.25} \times 10^{-3} = 100 \times 0.1 \times 10^{-3} = 10 \times 10^{-3} \; H$.
Since $1 \; H = 1000 \; mH$,we have $L = 10 \; mH$.
130
PhysicsMediumMCQJEE Main · 2020
Both the diodes used in the circuit shown are assumed to be ideal and have negligible resistance when these are forward biased. The built-in potential in each diode is $0.7\; V$. For the input voltages shown in the figure,the voltage (in $Volts$) at point $A$ is
Question diagram
A
$18$
B
$8$
C
$12$
D
$15$

Solution

(C) In the given circuit,diode $D_{1}$ is connected to $12.7\; V$ and diode $D_{2}$ is connected to $4\; V$.
Since the potential at the anode of $D_{1}$ $(12.7\; V)$ is higher than the potential at the anode of $D_{2}$ $(4\; V)$,diode $D_{1}$ will be forward biased and diode $D_{2}$ will be reverse biased.
For a forward-biased diode with a built-in potential of $0.7\; V$,the output voltage at point $A$ is given by $V_{A} = V_{in} - V_{barrier}$.
Substituting the values,we get $V_{A} = 12.7\; V - 0.7\; V = 12\; V$.
Thus,the voltage at point $A$ is $12\; V$.
Solution diagram
131
PhysicsDifficultMCQJEE Main · 2020
The figure shows a region of length $l$ with a uniform magnetic field of $0.3 \, T$ in it. $A$ proton enters the region with a velocity of $4 \times 10^{5} \, m/s$,making an angle of $60^{\circ}$ with the field. If the proton completes $10$ revolutions by the time it crosses the region shown,$l$ is close to....... $m$ (mass of proton $= 1.67 \times 10^{-27} \, kg$,charge of the proton $= 1.6 \times 10^{-19} \, C$)
Question diagram
A
$0.11$
B
$0.22$
C
$0.44$
D
$0.88$

Solution

(C) The time period of a charged particle in a uniform magnetic field is given by $T = \frac{2 \pi m}{qB}$.
The proton completes $10$ revolutions,so the total time spent in the magnetic field is $t = 10T = 10 \times \frac{2 \pi m}{qB}$.
The velocity component parallel to the magnetic field is $v_{\parallel} = v \cos(60^{\circ}) = v \times \frac{1}{2} = \frac{v}{2}$.
Since the velocity component parallel to the magnetic field remains constant,the distance $l$ covered in the direction of the field is $l = v_{\parallel} \times t = \frac{v}{2} \times 10 \times \frac{2 \pi m}{qB} = \frac{10 \pi m v}{qB}$.
Substituting the given values:
$l = \frac{10 \times 3.14 \times 1.67 \times 10^{-27} \times 4 \times 10^{5}}{1.6 \times 10^{-19} \times 0.3}$
$l = \frac{20.942 \times 10^{-21}}{0.48 \times 10^{-19}} = \frac{20.942}{48} \approx 0.436 \, m$.
Rounding to the nearest option,$l \approx 0.44 \, m$.
Solution diagram
132
PhysicsDifficultMCQJEE Main · 2020
$A$ wire carrying current $I$ is bent in the shape $A, B, C, D, E, F, A$ as shown,where rectangle $A, B, C, D, A$ and $A, D, E, F, A$ are perpendicular to each other. If the sides of the rectangles are of lengths $a$ and $b$,then the magnitude and direction of the magnetic moment of the loop $A, B, C, D, E, F, A$ is
Question diagram
A
$\sqrt{2} abI$,along $\left(\frac{\hat{j}}{\sqrt{2}}+\frac{\hat{k}}{\sqrt{2}}\right)$
B
$\sqrt{2} abI$,along $\left(\frac{\hat{j}}{\sqrt{5}}+\frac{2\hat{k}}{\sqrt{5}}\right)$
C
$abI$,along $\left(\frac{\hat{j}}{\sqrt{2}}+\frac{\hat{k}}{\sqrt{2}}\right)$
D
$abI$,along $\left(\frac{\hat{j}}{\sqrt{5}}+\frac{2\hat{k}}{\sqrt{5}}\right)$

Solution

(A) The magnetic moment $\vec{M}$ of a current loop is given by $\vec{M} = I\vec{A}$,where $\vec{A}$ is the area vector.
For the loop $A, B, C, D, E, F, A$,we can consider it as two loops $ABCD$ and $DEFA$ joined together.
The magnetic moment of loop $ABCD$ (in the $XY$-plane) is $\vec{M}_1 = I(ab)\hat{k} = abI\hat{k}$.
The magnetic moment of loop $DEFA$ (in the $XZ$-plane) is $\vec{M}_2 = I(ab)\hat{j} = abI\hat{j}$.
The total magnetic moment is $\vec{M} = \vec{M}_1 + \vec{M}_2 = abI(\hat{j} + \hat{k})$.
The magnitude is $|\vec{M}| = abI\sqrt{1^2 + 1^2} = \sqrt{2}abI$.
The direction is given by the unit vector $\frac{\vec{M}}{|\vec{M}|} = \frac{abI(\hat{j} + \hat{k})}{\sqrt{2}abI} = \left(\frac{\hat{j}}{\sqrt{2}} + \frac{\hat{k}}{\sqrt{2}}\right)$.
Thus,the magnetic moment is $\sqrt{2}abI$ along $\left(\frac{\hat{j}}{\sqrt{2}} + \frac{\hat{k}}{\sqrt{2}}\right)$.
133
PhysicsMediumMCQJEE Main · 2020
$A$ potentiometer wire $PQ$ of $1\,m$ length is connected to a standard cell $E_{1}$. Another cell $E_{2}$ of emf $1.02\,V$ is connected with a resistance $r$ and switch $S$ (as shown in figure). With switch $S$ open,the null position is obtained at a distance of $49\,cm$ from $Q$. The potential gradient in the potentiometer wire is.......$V/cm$.
Question diagram
A
$0.02$
B
$0.04$
C
$0.01$
D
$0.03$

Solution

(A) In a potentiometer,the balancing length $l$ is always measured from the high potential end $P$.
Given the total length of the wire $PQ = 100\,cm$.
The null point is obtained at $49\,cm$ from $Q$.
Therefore,the balancing length from $P$ is $l = 100\,cm - 49\,cm = 51\,cm$.
The emf of the cell $E_{2}$ is balanced by the potential drop across the length $l$ of the potentiometer wire.
The formula for the emf is $E_{2} = \phi \times l$,where $\phi$ is the potential gradient.
Substituting the given values: $1.02\,V = \phi \times 51\,cm$.
Solving for $\phi$: $\phi = \frac{1.02}{51}\,V/cm = 0.02\,V/cm$.
Thus,the potential gradient in the potentiometer wire is $0.02\,V/cm$.
134
PhysicsMediumMCQJEE Main · 2020
In a Young's double slit experiment,$16$ fringes are observed in a certain segment of the screen when light of wavelength $700 \,nm$ is used. If the wavelength of light is changed to $400 \,nm$,the number of fringes observed in the same segment of the screen would be........
A
$28$
B
$24$
C
$18$
D
$30$

Solution

(A) Let the length of the segment be $\ell$.
Let $N$ be the number of fringes in the segment $\ell$,and $w$ be the fringe width.
The relationship between the number of fringes and fringe width is given by $N w = \ell$.
Since the fringe width $w = \frac{\lambda D}{d}$,we can write $N \left( \frac{\lambda D}{d} \right) = \ell$.
For a fixed segment length $\ell$,the product $N \lambda$ remains constant because $D$ and $d$ are constant.
Therefore,$N_1 \lambda_1 = N_2 \lambda_2$.
Given $N_1 = 16$,$\lambda_1 = 700 \,nm$,and $\lambda_2 = 400 \,nm$.
Substituting the values: $16 \times 700 = N_2 \times 400$.
$N_2 = \frac{16 \times 700}{400} = \frac{16 \times 7}{4} = 4 \times 7 = 28$.
Thus,the number of fringes observed is $28$.
135
PhysicsDifficultMCQJEE Main · 2020
In a hydrogen atom,the electron makes a transition from the $(n+1)^{\text{th}}$ level to the $n^{\text{th}}$ level. If $n >> 1$,the frequency of the radiation emitted is proportional to:
A
$\frac{1}{n^{4}}$
B
$\frac{1}{n^{3}}$
C
$\frac{1}{n^{2}}$
D
$\frac{1}{n}$

Solution

(B) In a hydrogen atom,the energy of the $n^{\text{th}}$ level is given by $E_n = -\frac{E_0}{n^2}$,where $E_0$ is the ionization energy of hydrogen.
For a transition from $(n+1)$ to $n$,the energy of the emitted radiation $\Delta E$ is the difference between the energy levels:
$\Delta E = E_{n+1} - E_n = E_0 \left( \frac{1}{n^2} - \frac{1}{(n+1)^2} \right)$
Using the relation $\Delta E = h\nu$,we have:
$h\nu = E_0 \left( \frac{(n+1)^2 - n^2}{n^2(n+1)^2} \right) = E_0 \left( \frac{2n+1}{n^2(n+1)^2} \right)$
For $n >> 1$,we can approximate $(n+1) \approx n$ and $(2n+1) \approx 2n$:
$h\nu \approx E_0 \left( \frac{2n}{n^2 \cdot n^2} \right) = E_0 \left( \frac{2n}{n^4} \right) = \frac{2E_0}{n^3}$
Thus,the frequency $\nu$ is proportional to $\frac{1}{n^3}$.
136
PhysicsDifficultMCQJEE Main · 2020
In the following digital circuit,what will be the output at $Z$ when the inputs $(A, B)$ are $(1,0), (0,0), (1,1), (0,1)$?
Question diagram
A
$1, 0, 1, 1$
B
$0, 1, 0, 0$
C
$0, 0, 1, 0$
D
$1, 1, 0, 1$

Solution

(C) Let the output of the $NAND$ gate be $P = \overline{AB}$.
Let the output of the $OR$ gate be $Q = A+B$.
The $AND$ gate takes $P$ and $Q$ as inputs,so its output is $R = P \cdot Q = (\overline{AB}) \cdot (A+B)$.
Using Boolean algebra: $R = (\bar{A} + \bar{B}) \cdot (A+B) = \bar{A}A + \bar{A}B + \bar{B}A + \bar{B}B = 0 + \bar{A}B + A\bar{B} + 0 = A \oplus B$ ($XOR$ operation).
The final $NOR$ gate takes $P$ and $R$ as inputs,so $Z = \overline{P+R} = \overline{(\overline{AB}) + (A \oplus B)}$.
Let's evaluate for each input $(A, B)$:
$1$. $(1, 0): P = \overline{1 \cdot 0} = 1, Q = 1+0 = 1, R = 1 \cdot 1 = 1. Z = \overline{1+1} = 0$.
$2$. $(0, 0): P = \overline{0 \cdot 0} = 1, Q = 0+0 = 0, R = 1 \cdot 0 = 0. Z = \overline{1+0} = 0$.
$3$. $(1, 1): P = \overline{1 \cdot 1} = 0, Q = 1+1 = 1, R = 0 \cdot 1 = 0. Z = \overline{0+0} = 1$.
$4$. $(0, 1): P = \overline{0 \cdot 1} = 1, Q = 0+1 = 1, R = 1 \cdot 1 = 1. Z = \overline{1+1} = 0$.
The outputs are $0, 0, 1, 0$.
Solution diagram
137
PhysicsDifficultMCQJEE Main · 2020
An inductance coil has a reactance of $100\, \Omega$. When an $AC$ signal of frequency $1000\, Hz$ is applied to the coil,the applied voltage leads the current by $45^{\circ}$. The self-inductance of the coil is
A
$1.1 \times 10^{-2}\; H$
B
$1.1 \times 10^{-1} \;H$
C
$5.5 \times 10^{-5} \;H$
D
$6.7 \times 10^{-7}\; H$

Solution

(A) The impedance $Z$ of an $RL$ circuit is given by $Z = \sqrt{R^2 + X_L^2} = 100\, \Omega$.
Given that the voltage leads the current by $\phi = 45^{\circ}$,we have $\tan \phi = \frac{X_L}{R}$.
Since $\tan 45^{\circ} = 1$,it follows that $X_L = R$.
Substituting $X_L = R$ into the impedance equation: $\sqrt{X_L^2 + X_L^2} = 100 \Rightarrow \sqrt{2} X_L = 100$.
Thus,$X_L = \frac{100}{\sqrt{2}} = 50\sqrt{2}\, \Omega$.
Since $X_L = 2\pi f L$,we have $L = \frac{X_L}{2\pi f} = \frac{50\sqrt{2}}{2 \times \pi \times 1000}$.
$L = \frac{25\sqrt{2}}{1000\pi} \approx \frac{25 \times 1.414}{3141.59} \approx 0.01125\, H = 1.125 \times 10^{-2}\, H$.
Solution diagram
138
PhysicsMediumMCQJEE Main · 2020
$A$ small point mass carrying some positive charge is released from the edge of a table. There is a uniform electric field in this region in the horizontal direction. Which of the following options correctly describes the trajectory of the mass? (Curves are drawn schematically and are not to scale).
Question diagram
A
Option A
B
Option B
C
Option C
D
Option D

Solution

(C) The particle is subjected to two constant forces: the gravitational force $mg$ acting downwards (along the $y$-axis) and the electric force $qE$ acting horizontally (along the $x$-axis).
Since the initial velocity is zero, the net force $F_{net} = \sqrt{(mg)^2 + (qE)^2}$ is constant in both magnitude and direction.
According to Newton's second law, the acceleration $a = F_{net}/m$ is also constant.
$A$ particle starting from rest and moving under the influence of a constant net force will travel in a straight line path along the direction of the net force.
Therefore, the trajectory is a straight line.
Solution diagram
139
PhysicsDifficultMCQJEE Main · 2020
$A$ $10\,\mu F$ capacitor is fully charged to a potential difference of $50\, V$. After removing the source voltage, it is connected to an uncharged capacitor in parallel. Now, the potential difference across them becomes $20\, V$. The capacitance of the second capacitor is $\dots \mu F$.
A
$10$
B
$15$
C
$20$
D
$30$

Solution

(B) Initially, the charge on the $10\,\mu F$ capacitor is:
$Q = C_1 V_1 = (10\,\mu F)(50\, V) = 500\,\mu C$
When this capacitor is connected in parallel to an uncharged capacitor of capacitance $C_2$, the total charge remains conserved.
Let the final potential difference be $V = 20\, V$.
The total charge $Q$ is distributed between the two capacitors:
$Q = (C_1 + C_2)V$
$500\,\mu C = (10\,\mu F + C_2)(20\, V)$
Dividing both sides by $20\, V$:
$25\,\mu F = 10\,\mu F + C_2$
$C_2 = 25\,\mu F - 10\,\mu F = 15\,\mu F$
Solution diagram
140
PhysicsMediumMCQJEE Main · 2020
In a plane electromagnetic wave,the directions of the electric field and magnetic field are represented by $\hat{k}$ and $2\hat{i}-2\hat{j}$,respectively. What is the unit vector along the direction of propagation of the wave?
A
$\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}(\hat{i}+\hat{j})$
B
$\frac{1}{\sqrt{5}}(\hat{i}+2\hat{j})$
C
$\frac{1}{\sqrt{5}}(2\hat{i}+\hat{j})$
D
$\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}(\hat{j}+\hat{k})$

Solution

(A) The direction of propagation of an electromagnetic wave is given by the direction of the Poynting vector,which is $\hat{E} \times \hat{B}$.
Given,the direction of the electric field is $\hat{E} = \hat{k}$.
The direction of the magnetic field is given by the vector $\vec{B} = 2\hat{i} - 2\hat{j}$.
The unit vector for the magnetic field is $\hat{B} = \frac{\vec{B}}{|B|} = \frac{2\hat{i} - 2\hat{j}}{\sqrt{2^2 + (-2)^2}} = \frac{2\hat{i} - 2\hat{j}}{\sqrt{8}} = \frac{2\hat{i} - 2\hat{j}}{2\sqrt{2}} = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}(\hat{i} - \hat{j})$.
The direction of propagation $\hat{C}$ is $\hat{E} \times \hat{B} = \hat{k} \times [\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}(\hat{i} - \hat{j})]$.
Using the cross product rules $\hat{k} \times \hat{i} = \hat{j}$ and $\hat{k} \times \hat{j} = -\hat{i}$,we get:
$\hat{C} = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}(\hat{k} \times \hat{i} - \hat{k} \times \hat{j}) = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}(\hat{j} - (-\hat{i})) = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}(\hat{i} + \hat{j})$.
141
PhysicsMediumMCQJEE Main · 2020
$A$ particle is moving $5$ times as fast as an electron. The ratio of the de-Broglie wavelength of the particle to that of the electron is $1.878 \times 10^{-4}$. The mass of the particle is close to
A
$4.8 \times 10^{-27} \ kg$
B
$1.2 \times 10^{-28} \ kg$
C
$9.1 \times 10^{-31} \ kg$
D
$9.7 \times 10^{-28} \ kg$

Solution

(D) Let the mass of the particle be $m$ and the mass of the electron be $m_e = 9.1 \times 10^{-31} \ kg$.
Let the speed of the electron be $v_e = V$.
Then,the speed of the particle is $v_p = 5V$.
The de-Broglie wavelength is given by $\lambda = \frac{h}{mv}$.
For the particle: $\lambda_p = \frac{h}{m(5V)}$.
For the electron: $\lambda_e = \frac{h}{m_e V}$.
The ratio of the wavelengths is $\frac{\lambda_p}{\lambda_e} = \frac{h}{5mV} \times \frac{m_e V}{h} = \frac{m_e}{5m}$.
Given $\frac{\lambda_p}{\lambda_e} = 1.878 \times 10^{-4}$,we have $\frac{m_e}{5m} = 1.878 \times 10^{-4}$.
Solving for $m$: $m = \frac{m_e}{5 \times 1.878 \times 10^{-4}} = \frac{9.1 \times 10^{-31}}{9.39 \times 10^{-4}} \approx 9.7 \times 10^{-28} \ kg$.
142
PhysicsDifficultMCQJEE Main · 2020
An ideal cell of emf $10\, V$ is connected in the circuit shown in the figure. Each resistance is $2\, \Omega$. The potential difference (in $V$) across the capacitor when it is fully charged is
Question diagram
A
$8$
B
$10$
C
$15$
D
$25$

Solution

(A) Given that all resistances $R_1$ to $R_5$ are $2\, \Omega$. When the capacitor is fully charged,no current flows through the branch containing the capacitor.
Let the nodes be marked as shown in the solution figure. The branch $ADB$ contains the capacitor,so no current flows through it.
The circuit simplifies to a combination of resistors where $R_1$ and $R_2$ are in series,and this combination is in parallel with $R_3$. This whole block is in series with $R_4$.
However,looking at the circuit,the current $i$ from the $10\, V$ source splits. The effective resistance $R_{eq}$ is calculated as follows:
The branch $AEB$ is not carrying current through the capacitor. The current flows through $R_1$ and $R_2$ in series $(2+2=4\, \Omega)$,which is in parallel with $R_3$ $(2\, \Omega)$.
Equivalent resistance of this part $= (4 \times 2) / (4 + 2) = 8 / 6 = 4/3\, \Omega$.
Adding $R_4$ in series,$R_{eq} = 4/3 + 2 = 10/3\, \Omega$.
Total current $i = V / R_{eq} = 10 / (10/3) = 3\, A$.
The potential difference across the capacitor is the potential difference between points $A$ and $B$,which is $V_{AB} = V_{AE} + V_{EB}$.
$V_{AE} = I_{R2} \times R_2 = 1\, A \times 2\, \Omega = 2\, V$.
$V_{EB} = I_{R4} \times R_4 = 3\, A \times 2\, \Omega = 6\, V$.
Thus,$V_{AB} = 2\, V + 6\, V = 8\, V$.
Solution diagram
143
PhysicsDifficultMCQJEE Main · 2020
$A$ light ray enters a solid glass sphere of refractive index $\mu=\sqrt{3}$ at an angle of incidence $60^{\circ}$. The ray is both reflected and refracted at the farther surface of the sphere. The angle (in degrees) between the reflected and refracted rays at this surface is......
A
$85$
B
$90$
C
$80$
D
$75$

Solution

(B) Let the point of incidence be $A$ and the point of reflection/refraction be $B$. The center of the sphere is $O$.
By Snell's law at point $A$:
$1 \times \sin 60^{\circ} = \sqrt{3} \times \sin \theta$
$\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} = \sqrt{3} \sin \theta$
$\sin \theta = \frac{1}{2} \Rightarrow \theta = 30^{\circ}$.
In the triangle $\triangle OAB$,$OA = OB = R$ (radius of the sphere). Thus,$\triangle OAB$ is an isosceles triangle.
The angle of incidence at point $B$ is also $\theta = 30^{\circ}$.
The angle of reflection at $B$ is $r' = 30^{\circ}$ (angle with the normal $OB$).
By Snell's law at $B$ for refraction:
$\sqrt{3} \times \sin 30^{\circ} = 1 \times \sin r''$
$\sqrt{3} \times \frac{1}{2} = \sin r'' \Rightarrow \sin r'' = \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} \Rightarrow r'' = 60^{\circ}$.
The angle between the normal $OB$ and the reflected ray is $30^{\circ}$.
The angle between the normal $OB$ and the refracted ray is $60^{\circ}$.
The angle between the reflected and refracted rays is the sum of these angles with the normal: $30^{\circ} + 60^{\circ} = 90^{\circ}$.
Solution diagram
144
PhysicsDifficultMCQJEE Main · 2020
$A$ spherical mirror is obtained as shown in the figure from a hollow glass sphere. If an object is positioned in front of the mirror,what will be the nature and magnification of the image of the object? (Figure drawn as schematic and not to scale)
Question diagram
A
Inverted,real and magnified
B
Erect,virtual and magnified
C
Erect,virtual and unmagnified
D
Inverted,real and diminished

Solution

(A) From the figure,the radius of curvature $R = 16 \ cm$. Since the inner surface is reflecting,it is a concave mirror.
Focal length $f = \frac{R}{2} = \frac{-16}{2} = -8 \ cm$.
The object is placed at $u = -10 \ cm$.
Using the mirror formula $\frac{1}{v} + \frac{1}{u} = \frac{1}{f}$:
$\frac{1}{v} + \frac{1}{-10} = \frac{1}{-8}$
$\frac{1}{v} = \frac{1}{10} - \frac{1}{8} = \frac{4 - 5}{40} = \frac{-1}{40}$
$v = -40 \ cm$.
Magnification $m = \frac{-v}{u} = \frac{-(-40)}{-10} = -4$.
Since $m$ is negative,the image is real and inverted. Since $|m| = 4 > 1$,the image is magnified.
145
PhysicsMediumMCQJEE Main · 2020
$A$ beam of protons with speed $4 \times 10^{5} \ m/s$ enters a uniform magnetic field of $0.3 \ T$ at an angle of $60^{\circ}$ to the magnetic field. The pitch of the resulting helical path of protons is close to....$cm$
(Mass of the proton $= 1.67 \times 10^{-27} \ kg$, charge of the proton $= 1.6 \times 10^{-19} \ C$)
A
$12$
B
$4$
C
$5$
D
$2$

Solution

(B) The pitch of a helical path is given by the formula: $P = v \cos \theta \times T = v \cos \theta \times \frac{2 \pi m}{qB}$.
Given values:
Speed $v = 4 \times 10^{5} \ m/s$
Magnetic field $B = 0.3 \ T$
Angle $\theta = 60^{\circ}$
Mass $m = 1.67 \times 10^{-27} \ kg$
Charge $q = 1.6 \times 10^{-19} \ C$
Substituting the values:
$P = \frac{2 \times 3.14 \times 1.67 \times 10^{-27} \times 4 \times 10^{5} \times \cos 60^{\circ}}{1.6 \times 10^{-19} \times 0.3}$
Since $\cos 60^{\circ} = 0.5$:
$P = \frac{2 \times 3.14 \times 1.67 \times 10^{-27} \times 4 \times 10^{5} \times 0.5}{1.6 \times 10^{-19} \times 0.3}$
$P = \frac{10.4872 \times 10^{-22}}{0.48 \times 10^{-19}}$
$P \approx 0.0437 \ m \approx 4.37 \ cm$.
The closest option is $4 \ cm$.
146
PhysicsEasyMCQJEE Main · 2020
Consider four conducting materials: copper,tungsten,mercury,and aluminium with resistivity $\rho_{C}, \rho_{T}, \rho_{M}$,and $\rho_{A}$ respectively. Then:
A
$\rho_{A} > \rho_{T} > \rho_{C}$
B
$\rho_{C} > \rho_{A} > \rho_{T}$
C
$\rho_{A} > \rho_{M} > \rho_{C}$
D
$\rho_{M} > \rho_{A} > \rho_{C}$

Solution

(D) The resistivity values at room temperature $(20^{\circ}C)$ for the given materials are approximately:
Copper $(\rho_{C})$: $1.72 \times 10^{-8} \ \Omega \cdot m$
Aluminium $(\rho_{A})$: $2.82 \times 10^{-8} \ \Omega \cdot m$
Tungsten $(\rho_{T})$: $5.60 \times 10^{-8} \ \Omega \cdot m$
Mercury $(\rho_{M})$: $98.0 \times 10^{-8} \ \Omega \cdot m$
Comparing these values,we get $\rho_{M} > \rho_{T} > \rho_{A} > \rho_{C}$.
Among the given options,the correct relationship is $\rho_{M} > \rho_{A} > \rho_{C}$.
147
PhysicsMediumMCQJEE Main · 2020
Magnetic materials used for making permanent magnets $(P)$ and magnets in a transformer $(T)$ have different properties. Of the following,which property best matches the type of magnet required?
A
$T$: Large retentivity,small coercivity
B
$P$: Small retentivity,large coercivity
C
$T$: Large retentivity,large coercivity
D
$P$: Large retentivity,large coercivity

Solution

(A) For a permanent magnet $(P)$,the material must have high retentivity so that it remains magnetized,and high coercivity so that it is not easily demagnetized by external magnetic fields or temperature fluctuations.
For a transformer core $(T)$,the material must have high retentivity but very low coercivity to minimize energy loss due to hysteresis during the rapid magnetization and demagnetization cycles of alternating current.
Therefore,the correct property is that $T$ requires large retentivity and small coercivity.
148
PhysicsDifficultMCQJEE Main · 2020
Interference fringes are observed on a screen by illuminating two thin slits $1 \, mm$ apart with a light source $(\lambda = 632.8 \, nm)$. The distance between the screen and the slits is $100 \, cm$. If a bright fringe is observed on a screen at a distance of $1.27 \, mm$ from the central bright fringe,then the path difference between the waves,which are reaching this point from the slits,is close to $.... \mu m$.
A
$1.27$
B
$2$
C
$2.87$
D
$2.05$

Solution

(A) Given:
Slit separation $d = 1 \, mm = 10^{-3} \, m$
Wavelength $\lambda = 632.8 \, nm = 632.8 \times 10^{-9} \, m$
Distance $D = 100 \, cm = 1 \, m$
Position of bright fringe $y = 1.27 \, mm = 1.27 \times 10^{-3} \, m$
The condition for a bright fringe is $y = \frac{n D \lambda}{d}$,where $n$ is the order of the fringe.
Calculating $n$:
$n = \frac{y d}{D \lambda} = \frac{1.27 \times 10^{-3} \times 10^{-3}}{1 \times 632.8 \times 10^{-9}} = \frac{1.27 \times 10^{-6}}{632.8 \times 10^{-9}} = \frac{1270}{632.8} \approx 2$
The path difference $\Delta x$ for a bright fringe is given by $\Delta x = n \lambda$.
Substituting the values:
$\Delta x = 2 \times 632.8 \, nm = 1265.6 \, nm = 1.2656 \, \mu m \approx 1.27 \, \mu m$.
Solution diagram
149
PhysicsDifficultMCQJEE Main · 2020
$A$ plane electromagnetic wave has a frequency of $2.0 \times 10^{10} \ Hz$ and its energy density is $1.02 \times 10^{-8} \ J/m^3$ in vacuum. The amplitude of the magnetic field of the wave is close to $....nT$. (Given: $\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_0} = 9 \times 10^9 \ Nm^2/C^2$ and speed of light $c = 3 \times 10^8 \ m/s$)
A
$180$
B
$160$
C
$150$
D
$190$

Solution

(B) The total energy density $u$ of an electromagnetic wave is given by $u = \frac{B_0^2}{2 \mu_0}$.
Given $u = 1.02 \times 10^{-8} \ J/m^3$ and $\mu_0 = 4 \pi \times 10^{-7} \ T \cdot m/A$.
Rearranging the formula for the magnetic field amplitude $B_0$:
$B_0^2 = 2 \mu_0 u$
$B_0^2 = 2 \times (4 \pi \times 10^{-7}) \times (1.02 \times 10^{-8})$
$B_0^2 = 8 \pi \times 1.02 \times 10^{-15}$
$B_0^2 \approx 25.13 \times 1.02 \times 10^{-15} \approx 25.63 \times 10^{-15} \approx 256.3 \times 10^{-16}$
Taking the square root:
$B_0 \approx 16 \times 10^{-8} \ T$
Since $1 \ nT = 10^{-9} \ T$,we have $B_0 = 160 \times 10^{-9} \ T = 160 \ nT$.
150
PhysicsMediumMCQJEE Main · 2020
In a reactor, $2 \, kg$ of ${ }_{92} U ^{235}$ fuel is fully used up in $30$ days. The energy released per fission is $200 \, MeV$. Given that the Avogadro number, $N_A = 6.023 \times 10^{26} \, \text{per kilo mole}$ and $1 \, eV = 1.6 \times 10^{-19} \, J$. The power output of the reactor is close to $..... \, MW$.
A
$125$
B
$60$
C
$35$
D
$54$

Solution

(B) $1$. Calculate the number of uranium atoms in $2 \, kg$ of ${ }_{92} U ^{235}$:
$n = \frac{\text{mass}}{\text{molar mass}} \times N_A = \frac{2 \, kg}{235 \, kg/kmol} \times 6.023 \times 10^{26} \, \text{atoms/kmol} \approx 5.126 \times 10^{24} \, \text{atoms}$.
$2$. Calculate the total energy released $(E)$:
$E = n \times 200 \, MeV = 5.126 \times 10^{24} \times 200 \times 10^6 \times 1.6 \times 10^{-19} \, J \approx 1.64 \times 10^{14} \, J$.
$3$. Calculate the power output $(P)$:
$P = \frac{E}{t}$, where $t = 30 \, \text{days} = 30 \times 24 \times 3600 \, s = 2.592 \times 10^6 \, s$.
$P = \frac{1.64 \times 10^{14}}{2.592 \times 10^6} \approx 6.326 \times 10^7 \, W = 63.26 \, MW$.
The value is closest to $60 \, MW$.

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