ધારો કે $f(x)$ તમામ વાસ્તવિક $x$ માટે ધન છે. જો $I_1 = \int_{1-h}^{h} x f(x(1-x)) dx$ અને $I_2 = \int_{1-h}^{h} f(x(1-x)) dx$,જ્યાં $(2h-1) > 0$,તો $\frac{I_1}{I_2}$ શું થાય?

  • A
    $2$
  • B
    $h$
  • C
    $\frac{1}{2}$
  • D
    $1$

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