Consider the two statements :

$(\mathrm{S} 1):(\mathrm{p} \rightarrow \mathrm{q}) \vee(\sim \mathrm{q} \rightarrow \mathrm{p})$ is a tautology

$(S2): (\mathrm{p} \wedge \sim \mathrm{q}) \wedge(\sim \mathrm{p} \vee \mathrm{q})$ is a fallacy.

Then :

Which of the following is not a statement

$\sim (p \vee q) \vee (\sim p \wedge q)$ is logically equivalent to

Let $F_{1}(A, B, C)=(A \wedge \sim B) \vee[\sim C \wedge(A \vee B)] \vee \sim A$ and $F _{2}( A , B )=( A \vee B ) \vee( B \rightarrow \sim A )$ be two logical expressions. Then ...... .

$( S 1)( p \Rightarrow q ) \vee( p \wedge(\sim q ))$ is a tautology $( S 2)((\sim p ) \Rightarrow(\sim q )) \wedge((\sim p ) \vee q )$ is a Contradiction. Then

Which of the following  statements is $NOT$  logically equivalent to $\left( {p \to  \sim p} \right) \to \left( {p \to q} \right)$?