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General Questions in English

Class 12 Biology · Human Health and Disease · General

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251
Easy
Define and explain the terms: Non-infectious disease and Infectious disease.

Solution

(N/A) Non-infectious disease: These diseases remain limited to the individual in whom they have developed and are not transmitted from one person to another. Examples include cancer and genetic disorders.
Infectious disease: These diseases are caused by pathogenic organisms such as viruses,bacteria,fungi,protozoa,and helminths. They are easily transmitted from one person to another,such as the common cold,$AIDS$,and malaria.
252
EasyMCQ
What is the full form of $WHO$?
A
World Health Organization
B
World Health Office
C
World Health Operation
D
World Health Outreach

Solution

(A) The full form of $WHO$ is $World$ $Health$ $Organization$. It is a specialized agency of the $United$ $Nations$ responsible for international public health.
253
MediumMCQ
Which of the following characteristics can be included in a healthy person?
A
Mental
B
Physical
C
Social
D
All of the above

Solution

(D) According to the World Health Organization $(WHO)$,health is defined as a state of complete physical,mental,and social well-being and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity.
Therefore,a healthy person must be physically fit,mentally stable,and socially well-adjusted.
Thus,all the given options are correct.
254
MediumMCQ
Which of the following factors are essential for maintaining good health?
A
Balanced diet
B
Daily exercise
C
Proper sleep
D
All of the above

Solution

(D) Maintaining good health is a multifaceted process that requires a combination of several lifestyle factors.
$1$. $A$ balanced diet provides the essential nutrients,vitamins,and minerals required for the proper functioning of the body.
$2$. Daily exercise helps in maintaining physical fitness,improving cardiovascular health,and strengthening the immune system.
$3$. Proper sleep is crucial for the body to repair tissues,consolidate memory,and regulate hormonal balance.
Therefore,all these factors are essential for overall well-being.
255
MediumMCQ
Which of the following is not included among pathogens?
A
Protozoa
B
Mosquito
C
Virus
D
None of these

Solution

(B) Pathogens are disease-causing organisms such as bacteria,viruses,fungi,protozoa,and helminths.
Mosquitoes are not pathogens themselves; rather,they act as vectors that transmit pathogens (e.g.,Plasmodium for malaria) from one host to another.
Therefore,mosquitoes are not classified as pathogens.
256
MediumMCQ
Which of the following plays a role in preventing the entry of microorganisms into the body?
A
$HCl$ acid,saliva in the mouth,tears from the eyes
B
$PMNL$,monocytes,$NK$ cells
C
Epithelial lining of the respiratory,gastrointestinal,and urogenital tracts
D
Interferons,antibodies,$B$-cells,$T$-cells

Solution

(C) The body has physical barriers that prevent the entry of microorganisms. The epithelial lining of the respiratory,gastrointestinal,and urogenital tracts is a type of physical barrier that traps microorganisms entering our body. $HCl$ acid in the stomach,saliva in the mouth,and tears from the eyes are physiological barriers. $PMNL$,monocytes,and $NK$ cells are cellular barriers,while interferons are cytokine barriers.
257
MediumMCQ
What is the full form of $PMNL$?
A
Poly Morpho nano Leucocytes
B
Poly Morpho nuclear Lymphocytes
C
Poly Morpho nuclear Leucocytes
D
Poly Meta Nucleo Lymphocytes

Solution

(C) $PMNL$ stands for Polymorphonuclear Leucocytes.
These are a type of white blood cell (leucocyte) characterized by a multi-lobed nucleus.
They are a key component of the innate immune system,acting as phagocytes to engulf and destroy pathogens.
258
MediumMCQ
The $ELISA$ technique is used to detect which of the following?
A
Proteins produced against a pathogen
B
Viruses that have entered the body
C
Changes caused by bacteria in the body
D
All of the above

Solution

(D) $ELISA$ stands for Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay.
It is a diagnostic technique based on the principle of antigen-antibody interaction.
In this technique,the presence of a pathogen (like a virus or bacteria) is detected either by the presence of antigens (proteins,glycoproteins,etc.) or by detecting the antibodies synthesized against the pathogen.
Therefore,it can identify both the pathogen and the immune response (antibodies) generated by the host.
259
EasyMCQ
Which vaccine is used for tuberculosis?
A
$TAB$
B
$BCG$
C
$DPT$
D
All of these

Solution

(B) The $BCG$ (Bacillus Calmette-Guérin) vaccine is the specific vaccine used to prevent tuberculosis $(TB)$.
$TAB$ vaccine is used for typhoid,paratyphoid $A$,and paratyphoid $B$.
$DPT$ vaccine is used for diphtheria,pertussis (whooping cough),and tetanus.
Therefore,the correct option is $B$.
260
MediumMCQ
Diseases present in an offspring at the time of birth are called .......?
A
Infectious diseases
B
Non-infectious diseases
C
Congenital diseases
D
Fatal diseases

Solution

(C) Diseases that are present in an individual from birth are known as $Congenital$ $diseases$. These are typically caused by genetic abnormalities or metabolic disorders present at the time of conception or during embryonic development. In contrast, $Infectious$ $diseases$ are caused by pathogens, and $Non-infectious$ $diseases$ are acquired during an individual's lifetime.
261
EasyMCQ
Serology is the study of ......
A
Study of antigen-antibody reactions
B
Study of cancer
C
Study of diseases caused by viruses
D
Both $B$ and $C$

Solution

(A) Serology is a branch of immunology that deals with the scientific study of serum and other bodily fluids.
In practice,the term usually refers to the diagnostic identification of antibodies in the serum.
These antibodies are typically formed in response to an infection (against specific antigens) or other foreign substances.
Therefore,serology is primarily defined as the study of antigen-antibody reactions.
262
MediumMCQ
Which cells secrete substances necessary for vasodilation?
A
Mast cells
B
Basophils
C
Both $A$ and $B$
D
Macrophages

Solution

(C) Vasodilation is the widening of blood vessels,which is a key part of the inflammatory response.
Mast cells and Basophils are the primary cells that release histamine.
Histamine is a potent vasodilator that increases blood flow to the site of injury or infection,allowing immune cells to reach the area more effectively.
Therefore,both Mast cells and Basophils contribute to this process.
263
MediumMCQ
Which component present in the eyes,skin,or saliva acts as a physiological barrier to resist microorganisms?
A
Cytokinin
B
Acid
C
Lysozyme
D
$A$ and $C$ both
264
EasyMCQ
How many amino acids are present in the structure of interferon?
A
$166$
B
$270$
C
$249$
D
$307$

Solution

(A) Interferons are a group of signaling proteins released by host cells in response to the presence of pathogens such as viruses.
Specifically,human interferon-alpha $(IFN-\alpha)$ is a well-studied type of interferon.
The primary structure of the mature human leukocyte interferon ($IFN$-alpha) consists of $166$ amino acids.
Therefore,the correct number of amino acids in the mature human $IFN-\alpha$ protein is $166$.
265
MediumMCQ
Which of the following components can induce pain during $Inflammation$?
A
$IFN$
B
Prostaglandins
C
Histamine
D
Interleukins

Solution

(B) During the process of $Inflammation$,damaged cells and immune cells release various chemical mediators.
$Prostaglandins$ are lipid compounds that sensitize nerve endings (nociceptors),which significantly contributes to the sensation of pain.
$Histamine$ is primarily involved in vasodilation and increasing vascular permeability,leading to redness and swelling.
$IFN$ (Interferons) are antiviral proteins,and $Interleukins$ are signaling molecules involved in immune cell regulation.
Therefore,$Prostaglandins$ are the primary mediators responsible for inducing pain.
266
MediumMCQ
The polypeptide chains in the structure of an antibody are held together by .........
A
Antigen binding
B
Disulphide bonds
C
Variable region of antibody
D
Both polypeptide chains do not bind to each other

Solution

(B) An antibody molecule is represented as $H_2L_2$.
It consists of four polypeptide chains: two light chains $(L)$ and two heavy chains $(H)$.
These chains are held together by disulphide bonds ($S-S$ bonds) to form a $Y$-shaped structure.
267
MediumMCQ
Which of the following components are present in a vaccine?
A
Inactivated pathogens
B
Protein antigens of pathogens
C
Weakened pathogens
D
All of the above

Solution

(D) vaccine is a biological preparation that provides active acquired immunity to a particular infectious disease.
It typically contains an agent that resembles a disease-causing microorganism and is often made from weakened or killed forms of the microbe,its toxins,or one of its surface proteins.
$1$. Inactivated (killed) pathogens are used in vaccines like the polio vaccine.
$2$. Weakened (attenuated) pathogens are used in vaccines like the $BCG$ vaccine.
$3$. Protein antigens (subunits) are used in vaccines like the Hepatitis-$B$ vaccine.
Therefore,all the given options are correct components used in the preparation of vaccines.
268
EasyMCQ
Which scientist discovered the vaccines for anthrax,chicken cholera,and rabies?
A
Edward Jenner
B
William Harvey
C
Von Behring
D
Louis Pasteur

Solution

(D) Louis Pasteur is known as the father of microbiology and immunology. He developed the vaccines for anthrax,chicken cholera,and rabies. Edward Jenner is known for the smallpox vaccine,while Von Behring is known for diphtheria antitoxin.
269
MediumMCQ
Hashimoto's disease is a/an...
A
Autoimmune disease against the stomach
B
Autoimmune disease of the thyroid gland
C
Disease affecting the neuromuscular junction
D
Elephantiasis caused by filarial worms

Solution

(B) Hashimoto's disease,also known as chronic lymphocytic thyroiditis,is an autoimmune disorder in which the immune system attacks the thyroid gland.
This leads to the destruction of thyroid cells,resulting in hypothyroidism (underactive thyroid).
It is characterized by the presence of autoantibodies against thyroid peroxidase and/or thyroglobulin.
Therefore,it is an autoimmune disease of the thyroid gland.
270
MediumMCQ
Which disease has been completely eradicated through the immunization program?
A
Measles
B
Polio
C
Smallpox
D
Chickenpox

Solution

(C) Smallpox ($Variola$ virus) is the only human infectious disease that has been completely eradicated globally through intensive vaccination and immunization programs. The World Health Organization $(WHO)$ declared the world free of smallpox in $1980$.
271
MediumMCQ
Which test can be used to detect the amount of antibodies in serum at the nanogram level?
A
$W. B.$
B
$N. B.$
C
$ELISA$
D
$Widal$

Solution

(C) $ELISA$ (Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay) is a highly sensitive diagnostic technique used to detect the presence and quantify the concentration of specific antigens or antibodies in a sample.
It is capable of detecting substances at very low concentrations,such as the nanogram level,by utilizing enzyme-labeled antibodies that produce a measurable color change upon reaction with a substrate.
$Widal$ test is used for typhoid diagnosis,while $W. B.$ (Western Blot) is used for protein detection (e.g.,$HIV$ confirmation).
272
MediumMCQ
Match the following columns correctly.
Column-$I$Column-$II$
$(P)$ Pertussis$(i)$ Virus
$(Q)$ Dengue$(ii)$ Protozoa
$(R)$ Amoebiasis$(iii)$ Helminth
$(S)$ Filariasis$(iv)$ Bacteria
A
$P-i, Q-ii, R-iii, S-iv$
B
$P-iv, Q-ii, R-i, S-iii$
C
$P-iii, Q-ii, R-iv, S-i$
D
$P-iv, Q-i, R-ii, S-iii$

Solution

(D) The correct matching is as follows:
$(P)$ Pertussis is caused by the bacterium $Bordetella \, pertussis$ $(iv)$.
$(Q)$ Dengue is a viral disease caused by the Dengue virus $(i)$.
$(R)$ Amoebiasis is caused by the protozoan parasite $Entamoeba \, histolytica$ $(ii)$.
$(S)$ Filariasis (Elephantiasis) is caused by filarial worms like $Wuchereria \, bancrofti$ $(iii)$.
Therefore, the correct sequence is $P-iv, Q-i, R-ii, S-iii$.
273
MediumMCQ
Identify the correct pair of disease and its associated medication.
A
Fever - Antipyretic medicine
B
Typhoid - Penicillin
C
Cancer - Stavudine
D
$AIDS$ - Taxol

Solution

(A) $1$. Fever is treated with antipyretics,which reduce body temperature. This is a correct association.
$2$. Typhoid is a bacterial infection caused by Salmonella typhi,which is treated with antibiotics like chloramphenicol,not penicillin.
$3$. Cancer is treated with chemotherapy agents like Taxol,not Stavudine (which is an antiretroviral drug).
$4$. $AIDS$ is treated with antiretroviral drugs like Stavudine,not Taxol (which is an anti-cancer drug).
Therefore,the correct pair is Fever - Antipyretic medicine.
274
MediumMCQ
Identify the incorrect statement from the following.
A
Analgesics - Provide relief from pain.
B
Streptomycin - Obtained from a virus.
C
Aspirin - Currently the most widely used medicine for fever.
D
Cetirizine - Increases allergy.

Solution

(B) $1$. Analgesics are drugs used to provide relief from pain, which is a correct statement.
$2$. Streptomycin is an antibiotic obtained from the bacterium $Streptomyces \text{ griseus}$, not from a virus. Therefore, this statement is incorrect.
$3$. Aspirin is a common antipyretic and analgesic, widely used for fever and pain.
$4$. Cetirizine is an antihistamine used to treat allergy symptoms, not to increase them. Therefore, this statement is also incorrect.
Given the options provided, the question asks to identify the incorrect statement. Since both $B$ and $D$ are factually incorrect, in the context of standard biology multiple-choice questions where Streptomycin is a classic example of an antibiotic (not a virus-derived product), option $B$ is the most fundamentally incorrect statement regarding biological origin.
275
MediumMCQ
Which substance,when present in higher amounts in the body,leads to a fever-like condition?
A
Increased activity of mast cells
B
Increased production of antibodies by $T$-lymphocytes
C
Production of components like endogenous pyrogens
D
All of the above

Solution

(C) Fever,also known as pyrexia,is a systemic response to infection or inflammation.
It is primarily triggered by the release of substances known as pyrogens.
Endogenous pyrogens are cytokines,such as $Interleukin-1$ $(IL-1)$,$Interleukin-6$ $(IL-6)$,and $Tumor$ $Necrosis$ $Factor$ $(TNF)$,which are released by activated immune cells like macrophages.
These substances travel to the hypothalamus in the brain and reset the body's thermostat to a higher temperature,resulting in fever.
Therefore,the production of endogenous pyrogens is the direct cause of a fever-like condition.
276
MediumMCQ
When were Fleming,Chain,and Florey awarded the Nobel Prize for their research?
A
$1944$
B
$1945$
C
$1946$
D
$1947$

Solution

(B) Alexander Fleming discovered penicillin,while Howard Florey and Ernst Chain were instrumental in establishing its potential as an effective antibiotic. For their pioneering work in the discovery and development of penicillin,they were jointly awarded the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine in $1945$.
277
MediumMCQ
What is essential to understand before the effective treatment of a disease?
A
Early diagnosis
B
Pathophysiology of the disease
C
Patient's pedigree
D
Both $A$ and $B$

Solution

(D) Effective treatment of any disease requires a deep understanding of its nature.
$1$. $Early \ diagnosis$ is crucial because it allows for timely intervention,which significantly increases the chances of recovery.
$2$. $Pathophysiology$ (the study of the disordered physiological processes associated with disease or injury) is essential to understand how the disease affects the body's functions,which helps in selecting the appropriate therapeutic approach.
Therefore,both early diagnosis and understanding the pathophysiology are fundamental for effective treatment.
278
EasyMCQ
Which method is used to identify pathogens by amplifying their nucleic acids?
A
$PCR$
B
Analysis of $RBC$
C
$r-DNA$ technology
D
Conventional method

Solution

(A) The Polymerase Chain Reaction $(PCR)$ is a molecular biology technique used to amplify specific segments of $DNA$.
In the context of diagnostics,$PCR$ is highly sensitive and can detect pathogens (like bacteria or viruses) even when their concentration in the sample is very low,by amplifying their nucleic acid sequences.
Therefore,$PCR$ is the standard method for identifying pathogens through nucleic acid amplification.
279
MediumMCQ
Which diagnostic technique is based on antigen-antibody interactions?
A
Urinalysis
B
$PCR$
C
$r-DNA$ technology
D
$ELISA$

Solution

(D) $ELISA$ stands for Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay.
It is a diagnostic technique that relies on the principle of antigen-antibody interactions.
In this method,the presence of pathogens (like bacteria or viruses) is detected by the presence of antigens or by detecting antibodies synthesized against the pathogen.
$PCR$ (Polymerase Chain Reaction) is used for amplifying $DNA$,and $r-DNA$ technology is used for genetic engineering,not primarily for antigen-antibody detection.
280
MediumMCQ
Which of the following is not considered a parasite?
A
Plasmodium
B
Ascaris
C
Female Anopheles mosquito
D
Cockroach

Solution

(D) parasite is an organism that lives on or inside another organism (the host) and derives nutrients at the expense of the host.
$Plasmodium$ is an endoparasite that causes malaria.
$Ascaris$ is an endoparasite that lives in the human intestine.
The female $Anopheles$ mosquito is considered a parasite because it feeds on human blood to obtain nutrients for egg development,acting as a temporary ectoparasite.
$A$ cockroach is a scavenger or a detritivore that feeds on decaying organic matter,waste,and food scraps. It does not depend on a living host for its survival or nutrition in the manner of a parasite. Therefore,it is not a parasite.
281
MediumMCQ
Identify the organism that is inconsistent with the host's habitat.
A
Tapeworm
B
Entamoeba
C
Leech
D
Plasmodium

Solution

(C) The organisms listed are parasites. $A$ parasite lives on or inside another organism (the host) and derives nutrients at the host's expense.
$A$. Tapeworm is an endoparasite living in the intestine of the host.
$B$. Entamoeba is an endoparasite living in the intestine of the host.
$C$. Leech is an ectoparasite that attaches to the external surface of the host.
$D$. Plasmodium is an endoparasite living inside the red blood cells or liver cells of the host.
Among these,the Leech $(C)$ is an ectoparasite,while the others are endoparasites. Therefore,the Leech is the inconsistent organism based on the habitat (internal vs. external).
282
MediumMCQ
Cattle fed with spoilt hay of sweet clover,which contains dicumarol,are likely to:
A
Be healthier due to a good diet
B
Catch infections easily
C
Suffer from vitamin-$K$ deficiency and prolonged bleeding
D
Suffer from beri-beri due to deficiency of vitamin-$B$

Solution

(C) Dicumarol is a natural anticoagulant found in spoilt sweet clover hay.
When cattle consume this hay,it interferes with the synthesis of clotting factors in the liver,effectively acting as a vitamin-$K$ antagonist.
This leads to a functional vitamin-$K$ deficiency,which prevents proper blood clotting.
Consequently,the cattle suffer from prolonged bleeding or even fatal haemorrhage.
283
MediumMCQ
Triazenes are derived from:
A
Uric acid
B
Urea
C
Ammonia
D
None of these

Solution

(B) Triazenes are a class of chemical compounds containing a functional group consisting of three nitrogen atoms. They are structurally related to urea derivatives,where the oxygen atom is replaced by a nitrogen-based group,and are synthesized from urea or its derivatives.
284
EasyMCQ
The accumulation of protein called amyloid $\beta$-peptide in the human brain causes:
A
Addison's disease
B
Huntington's disease
C
Alzheimer's disease
D
Motor-neuron disease

Solution

(C) Alzheimer's disease is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder. It is characterized by the accumulation of misfolded proteins in the brain,specifically amyloid $\beta$-peptide plaques and tau protein tangles. These accumulations lead to the death of nerve cells,resulting in memory loss and cognitive decline.
285
EasyMCQ
The first dose of Oral Polio Vaccine $(OPV)$ and Hepatitis-$B$ vaccine is given to a child at:
A
$6$ weeks after birth
B
$10$ weeks after birth
C
$20$ weeks after birth
D
$24$ weeks after birth

Solution

(A) According to the National Immunization Schedule $(NIS)$,the primary vaccination series for infants begins at $6$ weeks of age.
At $6$ weeks,the following vaccines are administered:
$1$. Oral Polio Vaccine $(OPV)$ - $1^{st}$ dose
$2$. Hepatitis-$B$ vaccine - $1^{st}$ dose
$3$. Pentavalent vaccine (which includes $DPT$,Hepatitis-$B$,and Hib) - $1^{st}$ dose
$4$. Rotavirus vaccine - $1^{st}$ dose
$5$. Fractional Inactivated Polio Vaccine (fIPV) - $1^{st}$ dose
Therefore,the first dose of both the Oral Polio Vaccine and the Hepatitis-$B$ vaccine is given at $6$ weeks after birth.
286
EasyMCQ
$NSEP$ stands for
A
National Smallpox Eradication Programme
B
National Sickness Eradication Programme
C
National Syphilis Eradication Programme
D
None of the above

Solution

(A) $NSEP$ stands for National Smallpox Eradication Programme.
This was a major public health initiative launched by the Government of India to eliminate smallpox from the country.
Other significant national health programmes include:
$(a)$ National Malaria Eradication Programme $(NMEP)$
$(b)$ National Cholera Control Programme $(NCCP)$
$(c)$ National Leprosy Control Programme $(NLCP)$
$(d)$ National Filaria Control Programme $(NFCP)$
$(e)$ Family Planning Programme $(FPP)$
287
EasyMCQ
$NLCP$ stands for
A
National Lyme Control Programme
B
National Leprosy Control Programme
C
National Lesion Control Programme
D
None of the above

Solution

(B) The correct full form of $NLCP$ is National Leprosy Control Programme.
The Government of India initiated several national health programmes to eradicate major communicable diseases. Some of these include:
$(a)$ National Malaria Eradication Programme $(NMEP)$
$(b)$ National Cholera Control Programme $(NCCP)$
$(c)$ National Leprosy Control Programme $(NLCP)$
$(d)$ National Smallpox Eradication Programme $(NSEP)$
$(e)$ National Filaria Control Programme $(NFCP)$
$(f)$ Family Planning Programme $(FPP)$
288
EasyMCQ
$NFCP$ stands for
A
National Filaria Control Programme
B
National Smallpox Control Programme
C
National Fever Control Programme
D
None of the above

Solution

(A) $NFCP$ stands for National Filaria Control Programme.
This programme was initiated by the Government of India to control the spread of filariasis,a parasitic disease caused by filarial worms.
Other major national health programmes include:
$(a)$ National Malaria Eradication Programme $(NMEP)$
$(b)$ National Cholera Control Programme $(NCCP)$
$(c)$ National Leprosy Control Programme $(NLCP)$
$(d)$ National Smallpox Eradication Programme $(NSEP)$
$(e)$ Family Planning Programme $(FPP)$
289
EasyMCQ
$NMEP$ stands for
A
National Measles Eradication Programme
B
National Mumps Eradication Programme
C
National Malaria Eradication Programme
D
None of the above

Solution

(C) $NMEP$ stands for National Malaria Eradication Programme.
The Government of India initiated several national health programmes to control or eradicate major communicable diseases.
Some of the key national programmes include:
$(a)$ National Malaria Eradication Programme $(NMEP)$
$(b)$ National Cholera Control Programme $(NCCP)$
$(c)$ National Leprosy Control Programme $(NLCP)$
$(d)$ National Smallpox Eradication Programme $(NSEP)$
$(e)$ National Filaria Control Programme $(NFCP)$
$(f)$ Family Planning Programme $(FPP)$
290
EasyMCQ
$NCCP$ stands for:
A
National Cholera Control Programme
B
National Chickenpox Control Programme
C
National Chikungunya Control Programme
D
None of the above

Solution

(A) $NCCP$ stands for National Cholera Control Programme.
The Government of India initiated several national health programmes to eradicate or control major communicable diseases.
Some of the major national programmes include:
$(a)$ National Malaria Eradication Programme $(NMEP)$
$(b)$ National Cholera Control Programme $(NCCP)$
$(c)$ National Leprosy Control Programme $(NLCP)$
$(d)$ National Smallpox Eradication Programme $(NSEP)$
$(e)$ National Filaria Control Programme $(NFCP)$
$(f)$ Family Planning Programme $(FPP)$
291
EasyMCQ
At what age is the first dose of Oral Polio Vaccine $(OPV)$ and Hepatitis-$B$ vaccine given to a child?
A
$6 \; \text{weeks}$ after birth
B
$10 \; \text{weeks}$ after birth
C
$20 \; \text{weeks}$ after birth
D
$24 \; \text{weeks}$ after birth

Solution

(A) According to the standard National Immunization Schedule, the first dose of the Oral Polio Vaccine $(OPV)$ and the Hepatitis-$B$ vaccine is administered to an infant at $6 \; \text{weeks}$ of age.
These vaccines are crucial for building immunity against polio and hepatitis-$B$, which are serious viral infections. The immunization schedule ensures that children receive protection at the appropriate developmental stages to prevent these communicable diseases.
292
EasyMCQ
The first dose of $BCG$ vaccine is given at the time of:
A
Birth
B
$6$ months after birth
C
$8$ months after birth
D
$10$ months after birth

Solution

(A) According to the National Immunization Schedule,the $BCG$ (Bacillus Calmette-Guérin) vaccine is administered to infants to provide protection against tuberculosis. The first dose of the $BCG$ vaccine is recommended to be given at birth or as early as possible. Therefore,the correct option is birth.
293
EasyMCQ
When are the $2^{nd}$ and $3^{rd}$ doses of $DPT$ given to a child?
A
$10$ weeks and $14$ weeks
B
$2$ years and $5$ years
C
$4$ years and $10$ years
D
$6$ years and $15$ years

Solution

(A) The $DPT$ vaccine is a combination vaccine that protects against Diphtheria,Pertussis (whooping cough),and Tetanus. According to the standard National Immunization Schedule $(NIS)$,the primary series of $DPT$ vaccination is administered as follows:
$1$. $1^{st}$ dose: $6$ weeks
$2$. $2^{nd}$ dose: $10$ weeks
$3$. $3^{rd}$ dose: $14$ weeks
Therefore,the $2^{nd}$ dose is given at $10$ weeks and the $3^{rd}$ dose is given at $14$ weeks.
294
EasyMCQ
$DPT$ vaccine doses are administered at specific intervals after birth. Identify the correct sequence for the $1^{st}$, $2^{nd}$, and $3^{rd}$ doses of $DPT$ from the following list:
$I$. $6 \; \text{weeks}$ after birth
$II$. $10 \; \text{weeks}$ after birth
$III$. $14 \; \text{weeks}$ after birth
$IV$. $24 \; \text{weeks}$ after birth
$V$. $29 \; \text{weeks}$ after birth
A
$I$, $III$ and $IV$
B
$III$, $IV$ and $V$
C
$I$, $II$ and $III$
D
$V$, $I$ and $II$

Solution

(C) The $DPT$ (Diphtheria, Pertussis, and Tetanus) vaccine is a primary immunization series given to infants.
According to the National Immunization Schedule, the primary doses are administered at $6$, $10$, and $14$ weeks of age.
- $1^{st}$ dose: $6 \; \text{weeks}$ after birth $(I)$
- $2^{nd}$ dose: $10 \; \text{weeks}$ after birth $(II)$
- $3^{rd}$ dose: $14 \; \text{weeks}$ after birth $(III)$
Therefore, the correct sequence is $I$, $II$, and $III$.
295
EasyMCQ
Pasteur and Koch are related to
A
Discovery of nucleic acids $(DNA$ and $RNA)$
B
Discovery of ultracentrifuge
C
Germ theory of disease
D
Gene splicing

Solution

(C) Louis Pasteur proposed the germ theory of disease,which states that microorganisms are the cause of many diseases.
Robert Koch provided the definitive experimental proof for the germ theory of disease by establishing Koch's postulates.
Robert Koch is also considered one of the founders of modern microbiology and received the Nobel Prize in $1905$ for his work on tuberculosis.
296
MediumMCQ
$A$: Many countries have banned the use of antibiotics in cattle feed.
$R$: Dairymen give antibiotics in the feed to cattle,and it becomes a breeding ground for antibiotic-resistant bacteria.
A
Assertion and Reason both are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
B
Assertion and Reason both are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
C
Assertion is correct,but Reason is incorrect.
D
Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect.

Solution

(A) The use of antibiotics in cattle feed is a common practice to promote growth and prevent infections.
However,this practice leads to the development of antibiotic-resistant bacteria in the gut of the cattle.
These resistant bacteria can be transferred to humans through the food chain or direct contact,making human infections harder to treat.
Due to this public health risk,many countries have banned the use of antibiotics as growth promoters in cattle feed.
Therefore,both the Assertion and the Reason are correct,and the Reason provides the correct explanation for the Assertion.
297
EasyMCQ
Which one of the following is correctly matched?
A
Body louse - Typhoid
B
House fly - Yellow fever
C
Anopheles - Malaria
D
Aedes - Plague

Solution

(C) Malaria is a well-known human disease caused by infection with a pathogenic protozoan,the $Plasmodium$. Female $Anopheles$ mosquitoes act as vectors and transmit $Plasmodium$ from an infected person to a healthy person.
298
MediumMCQ
Who among the following established the scientific basis of vaccination?
A
Edward Jenner
B
George Kohler
C
Louis Pasteur
D
Von Behring

Solution

(C) Edward Jenner $(1796)$,an English physician,prepared the first vaccine when he injected the fluid from the sore of a milkmaid suffering from cowpox into the body of a healthy boy. When this boy was later exposed to smallpox,he exhibited resistance to the disease.
Louis Pasteur $(1879)$ discovered that ageing cultures of cholera bacteria were too weak to cause disease when injected into chickens. However,chickens injected with these weakened cultures became immune to fowl cholera.
By using this method,Pasteur developed a vaccine against rabies in $1885$,thereby establishing the scientific basis of vaccination.
299
MediumMCQ
Eradication of smallpox has been possible due to the following facts except:
A
Use of highly effective vaccine
B
Immunization programs
C
Elimination of animal reservoir
D
International cooperation

Solution

(C) Smallpox is caused by the Variola virus,which exclusively infects humans. There is no animal reservoir for this virus. Therefore,the eradication of smallpox was not achieved through the elimination of an animal reservoir,but rather through global vaccination efforts and international cooperation.
300
EasyMCQ
Which among the following is an autoimmune disease?
A
Rheumatoid arthritis
B
$AIDS$
C
Hepatitis-$B$
D
Swine flu

Solution

(A) An autoimmune disease occurs when the immune system mistakenly attacks the body's own healthy cells.
Rheumatoid arthritis $(RA)$ is a classic example of an autoimmune disease where the immune system attacks the synovial membranes of the joints,leading to inflammation and pain.
$AIDS$ is caused by the $HIV$ virus (immunodeficiency),$Hepatitis-B$ is a viral infection of the liver,and $Swine$ $flu$ is a respiratory infection caused by the $H1N1$ virus.

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