The number of polynomials $p: R \rightarrow R$ satisfying $p(0)=0, p(x)>x^2$ for all $x \neq 0$ and $p^{\prime \prime}(0)=\frac{1}{2}$ is
$0$
$1$
more than $1,$ but finite
infinite
For a real number $x$ let $[x]$ denote the largest number less than or equal to $x$. For $x \in R$ let $f(x)=[x] \sin \pi x$. Then,
If $f:R \to R$ and $f(x)$ is a polynomial function of degree ten with $f(x)=0$ has all real and distinct roots. Then the equation ${\left( {f'\left( x \right)} \right)^2} - f\left( x \right)f''\left( x \right) = 0$ has
Examine if Rolle's Theorem is applicable to any of the following functions. Can you say some thing about the converse of Roller's Theorem from these examples?
$f(x)=[x]$ for $x \in[5,9]$
If the function $f(x) = {x^3} - 6{x^2} + ax + b$ satisfies Rolle’s theorem in the interval $[1,\,3]$ and $f'\left( {{{2\sqrt 3 + 1} \over {\sqrt 3 }}} \right) = 0$, then $a =$ ..............
Which of the following function can satisfy Rolle's theorem ?