Let $f(x) = \begin{cases} \frac{x^p}{(\sin x)^q} & \text{if } 0 < x \leq \frac{\pi}{2} \\ 0 & \text{if } x = 0 \end{cases}$ where $p, q \in \mathbb{R}$. Then,Lagrange's Mean Value Theorem is applicable to $f(x)$ in the closed interval $[0, \frac{\pi}{2}]$ if:

  • A
    for all $p, q$
  • B
    only when $p > q$
  • C
    only when $p < q$
  • D
    for no value of $p, q$

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Statement $II$: If $f:[a, b] \rightarrow R$ is continuous on $[a, b]$ and $f$ is differentiable in $(a, b)$,where $a>0$ and if $\frac{f(a)}{a}=\frac{f(b)}{b}$,then there exists $c \in(a, b)$ such that $c f^{\prime}(c)=f(c)$.
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