A pen was sold for a certain sum and there wa | vedclass

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(D) Let the cost price $(CP)$ of the pen be $Rs. x$.Initially,the pen is sold at a loss of $20 \%$. Therefore,the selling price $(SP_1)$ is $x - 0.20x

Vedclass · Accepted Answer

No profit,no loss

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(D) Let the cost price $(CP)$ of the pen be $Rs. x$.Initially,the pen is sold at a loss of $20 \%$. Therefore,the selling price $(SP_1)$ is $x - 0.20x = 0.80x$.If the pen were sold for $Rs. 12$ more,the new selling price $(SP_2)$ would be $0.80x + 12$. At this price,there is a gain of $30 \%$,so $SP_2 = x + 0.30x = 1.30x$.Equating the two expressions for $SP_2$: $0.80x + 12 = 1.30x$.$12 = 1.30x - 0.80x = 0.50x$.$x = \frac{12}{0.50} = 24$.So,the $CP$ is $Rs. 24$.The original selling price $(SP_1)$ is $0.80 	imes 24 = Rs. 19.20$.If the pen is sold for $Rs. 4.80$ more than the original selling price,the new selling price $(SP_3)$ is $19.20 + 4.80 = Rs. 24$.Since $SP_3 = CP = Rs. 24$,the profit percentage is $0 \%$,meaning there is no profit and no loss.

$A$ pen was sold for a certain sum and there was a loss of $20 \%$. Had it been sold for $Rs. 12$ more,there would have been a gain of $30 \%$. What would be the profit percentage if the pen was sold for $Rs. 4.80$ more than the original selling price?

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