Let f(x) = begin{cases} g(x) cos(frac{1}{x}) | vedclass

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(B) By the definition of the derivative at $x = 0$:$f'(0) = \lim_{h 	o 0} \frac{f(h) - f(0)}{h} = \lim_{h 	o 0} \frac{g(h) \cos(\frac{1}{h}) - 0}{h}

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is equal to $0$

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(B) By the definition of the derivative at $x = 0$:$f'(0) = \lim_{h 	o 0} \frac{f(h) - f(0)}{h} = \lim_{h 	o 0} \frac{g(h) \cos(\frac{1}{h}) - 0}{h} = \lim_{h 	o 0} \frac{g(h)}{h} \cos(\frac{1}{h})$.Since $g(x)$ is an even function,$g(-x) = g(x)$.Given $g(x)$ is differentiable at $x = 0$ and passes through the origin,we have $g(0) = 0$.Thus,$g'(0) = \lim_{h 	o 0} \frac{g(h) - g(0)}{h} = \lim_{h 	o 0} \frac{g(h)}{h}$.Since $g(x)$ is even,$g'(0) = \lim_{h 	o 0} \frac{g(h) - g(0)}{h} = \lim_{h 	o 0} \frac{g(-h) - g(0)}{-h} = -g'(0)$,which implies $g'(0) = 0$.Therefore,$f'(0) = \lim_{h 	o 0} \frac{g(h)}{h} \cos(\frac{1}{h}) = g'(0) 	imes (	ext{a bounded value}) = 0 	imes 	ext{bounded value} = 0$.

Let $f(x) = \begin{cases} g(x) \cos(\frac{1}{x}) & \text{if } x \neq 0 \\ 0 & \text{if } x = 0 \end{cases}$ where $g(x)$ is an even function differentiable at $x = 0$,passing through the origin. Then $f'(0)$:

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