Let f: R rightarrow R be the function f(x)=le | vedclass

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Question

(b)

We have,

$f(x)=\left(x-a_1\right)\left(x-a_2\right)+\left(x-a_2\right)\left(x-a_3\right)+\left(x- a _3\right)\left(x- a _1\right)$

$f(x)=

Vedclass · Accepted Answer

$a_1=a_2=a_3$

Vedclass · Answer

(b)

We have,

$f(x)=\left(x-a_1ight)\left(x-a_2ight)+\left(x-a_2ight)\left(x-a_3ight)+\left(x- a _3ight)\left(x- a _1ight)$

$f(x)=3 x^2-2\left(a_1+a_2+a_3ight) x+a_1 a_2+a_2 a_3+a_1 a_3$

$f(x) \geq 0$ iff $D \leq 0$

$	herefore 4\left(a_1+a_2+a_3ight)^2-4 	imes 3 \left(a_1 a_2+a_2 a_3+a_1 a_3ight) \leq 0$

$=a_1^2+a_2^2+a_3^2-\left(a_1 a_2+a_2 a_3+a_1 a_3ight) \leq 0$

$=\frac{1}{2}\left[\left(a_1-a_2ight)^2+\left(a_2-a_3ight)^2+\left(a_3-a_1ight)^2ight] \leq 0$

It is possible only

$a _{1 .}=a_2, a_2= a _3, a _3= a _1$

$	herefore \quad a_1=a_2=a_3$

Let $f: R \rightarrow R$ be the function $f(x)=\left(x-a_1\right)\left(x-a_2\right)$ $+\left(x-a_2\right)\left(x-a_3\right)+\left(x-a_3\right)\left(x-a_1\right)$ with $a_1, a_2, a_3 \in R$.Then, $f(x) \geq 0$ if and only if

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