Give one example of a situation in which $(i)$ the mean is not an appropriate measure of central tendency but the median is an appropriate measure of central tendency.

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(N/A) When a data set contains a few observations that are significantly distant from the rest of the data (outliers),the mean is heavily influenced by these extreme values,making it an inappropriate measure of central tendency. In such cases,the median is a more robust and appropriate measure.
Consider the following data representing the marks obtained by $12$ students in a test:
$48, 59, 46, 52, 54, 46, 97, 42, 49, 58, 60, 99$
In this data set,the values $97$ and $99$ are significantly higher than the other marks. Because of these extreme values,the mean would be skewed upwards,failing to represent the typical performance of the students. Therefore,the median is a more appropriate measure of central tendency for this data.

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