In $[0, 1]$ Lagrange's mean value theorem is $ NOT$ applicable to
In $[0, 1]$ Lagrange's mean value theorem is $ NOT$ applicable to
- [IIT 2003]
- A
$f(x) = \left\{ {\begin{array}{*{20}{c}}
{\frac{1}{2} - x,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,x < \frac{1}{2}} \\
{{{\left( {\frac{1}{2} - x} \right)}^2},\,x \geqslant \frac{1}{2}}
\end{array}} \right.$ - B
$f(x) = \left\{ {\begin{array}{*{20}{c}}
{\frac{{\sin x}}{x}\,\,x \ne 0} \\
{1,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,x = \frac{1}{2}}
\end{array}} \right.$ - C
$f(x) = x|x|$
- D
$f(x) = |x|$
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