(N/A) Let $\Delta ABP$ and parallelogram $ABCD$ be on the same base $AB$ and between the same parallels $AB$ and $PC$.
You wish to prove that $\text{ar}(PAB) = \frac{1}{2} \text{ar}(ABCD)$.
Draw $BQ \parallel AP$ to obtain another parallelogram $ABQP$. Now,parallelograms $ABQP$ and $ABCD$ are on the same base $AB$ and between the same parallels $AB$ and $PC$.
Therefore,$\text{ar}(ABQP) = \text{ar}(ABCD)$ $(1)$.
But $\Delta PAB \cong \Delta BQP$ (Diagonal $PB$ divides parallelogram $ABQP$ into two congruent triangles).
So,$\text{ar}(PAB) = \text{ar}(BQP)$ $(2)$.
Therefore,$\text{ar}(PAB) = \frac{1}{2} \text{ar}(ABQP)$ [From $(2)$] $(3)$.
This gives $\text{ar}(PAB) = \frac{1}{2} \text{ar}(ABCD)$ [From $(1)$ and $(3)$].