Give scientific reasons : The human male never passes on the gene for haemophilia to his son.
 

Vedclass pdf generator app on play store
Vedclass iOS app on app store

The gene for haemophilia is present on $X$-chromosome. $A$ male has only one $X$-chromosome which he receives from his mother and $Y$-chromosome from father. The human male passes the $\mathrm{X}$ chromosome to his daughters but not to the male progeny (son).

Similar Questions

Sickle cell anaemia is due to

  • [AIPMT 1990]

Haemolytic jaundice is caused due to a dominant gene but only $10\%$ of the people actually develop the disease. A heterozygous man marries a homozygous normal woman; what proportion of the children would be expected to develop the haemolytic disease

  • [AIIMS 1982]

The best example for pleiotropy is

  • [NEET 2020]

Match the following - (w.r.t. Pedigree analysis)

Column $-I$ Column $-II$
$a.$ Solid symbol $(i)$ Carrier of sex linked trait
$b.$ Horizontal line between symbols $(ii)$ Offspring
$c.$ Horizontal line above the symbols $(iii)$ Trait to be studied
$d.$ Dot in centre $(iv)$ Parents

Haemophilia is more commonly seen in human males than in human females because

  • [AIPMT 2005]