A person sells 36 apple per rupee and suffers | vedclass

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Question

Here, $CP$ is same in both transactions $( CP )_{1}=( CP )_{2}$

$\frac{( SP )_{1}}{100- x }=\frac{( SP )_{2}}{100+ y }$       $

Vedclass · Accepted Answer

$32$

Vedclass · Answer

Here, $CP$ is same in both transactions $( CP )_{1}=( CP )_{2}$

$\frac{( SP )_{1}}{100- x }=\frac{( SP )_{2}}{100+ y }$       $[{ Where }\, x=4 \% 	ext { Loss }, y=8 \% 	ext { Gain }]$

$( SP )_{1}$ of $1$ apple $= Rs \cdot \frac{1}{36}$

$\Rightarrow \frac{\frac{1}{36}}{100-4}=\frac{( SP )_{2}}{100+8},( SP )_{2}=\frac{108}{96} 	imes \frac{1}{36}= Rs \cdot \frac{1}{32}$

Hence, in a rupee, the person can sell $32$ apples.

A person sells $36$ apple per rupee and suffers a loss of $4 \% .$ Find how many apple per rupees to be sold to have a gain of $8 \%$.

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