If $\int {{e^{{x^2}}}\left( {2 - \frac{1}{{{x^2}}}} \right)dx = {e^{{x^2}}}f(x) + C} $ and $f\left( {\frac{1}{2}} \right) = 2$,then $f(1)$ is equal to (where $C$ is an arbitrary constant).

  • A
    $1$
  • B
    $-1$
  • C
    $2$
  • D
    $\frac{1}{2}$

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