If $\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} f(x) dx = 1$,then $\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} f\left(x - \frac{1}{x}\right) dx$ is equal to

  • A
    $0$
  • B
    $1$
  • C
    $-1$
  • D
    $2$

Explore More

Similar Questions

If $f(x) = f(\Pi + e - x)$ and $\int_{e}^{\Pi} f(x) dx = \frac{2}{e + \Pi}$,then $\int_{e}^{\Pi} x f(x) dx$ is equal to

$\int_0^\pi \frac{x \tan x}{\sec x+\tan x} d x$ is equal to

$\int_{\pi/6}^{\pi/3} \frac{dx}{1+\sqrt{\cot x}} = $ . . . . . . .

$\int_{1/2}^{2} \frac{1}{x} \sin \left( x - \frac{1}{x} \right) dx = $

By using the properties of definite integrals,evaluate the integral $\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \frac{\sin^{\frac{3}{2}} x}{\sin^{\frac{3}{2}} x + \cos^{\frac{3}{2}} x} dx$.

Vedclass Products

For Students

Vedclass Test Series

Mock tests in real JEE/NEET style with performance analysis. 5-day free trial.

Start Free Trial
For Teachers

Exam Paper Generator

Generate Set A/B/C/D exam papers from 7.5L+ questions in 2 minutes. 3 chapters free.

Try Free
For Institutes

Online Exam Module

Live online exams with unlimited students, 360° analytics & white-label branding.

See Demo